Blood Bank and Immunology Lecture Review

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These flashcards cover key concepts in Blood Bank and Immunology, including innate/adaptive immunity, blood group antigens and antibodies, agglutination principles, common lab procedures, and specific Rh and ABO blood group characteristics.

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51 Terms

1
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Which of the following is NOT an example of innate immunity?

B cells are primarily involved in adaptive immunity, though T cells can have both innate and adaptive roles.

2
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What is the most immunogenic blood group antigen?

D

3
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What is the second most immunogenic blood group antigen, also known as 'killer'?

K (Kell)

4
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What characteristic defines naturally occurring antibodies?

Produced without prior exposure to a foreign antigen

5
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What immunoglobulin class are most naturally occurring antibodies, such as ABO antibodies?

IgM

6
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Which antibody class reacts best at room temperature and activates complement?

IgM

7
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Which antibody class reacts best at 37°C (body temperature)?

IgG

8
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What are the two unchanging light chains found in IgG and IgM immunoglobulins?

Kappa lambda

9
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Which region of the immunoglobulin molecule binds complement?

FC region

10
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Which region of the red cell-bound immunoglobulin does the FAB region of anti-human globulin (AHG) bind to?

FC region

11
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How many antigen-binding sites (FAB regions) does an IgM molecule have?

10

12
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How many FC regions does an IgM molecule have?

5

13
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How many molecules of IgG are needed to activate complement?

Two

14
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How many IgM molecules are needed to activate complement?

One

15
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Which immunoglobulin class can cross the placenta?

IgG

16
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Which two blood group systems are most important to induce complement-mediated intravascular hemolysis?

ABO and Lewis

17
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Which step of agglutination is affected by temperature, incubation time, pH, and ionic strength?

Sensitization

18
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Which step of agglutination is affected by zeta potential, zone of equivalence, and centrifugation?

Lattice formation

19
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Is hemolysis considered a positive reaction in blood banking?

True

20
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What causes hemolysis?

Complement activation

21
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What type of media is added to a test system to decrease the incubation time?

Enhancement media (potentiators)

22
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Which potentiator can reduce incubation time to 10-15 minutes and is favored by most labs in America?

LISS (Low Ionic Strength Solution)

23
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What are possible sources for the antibody in a blood bank test system?

Serum, plasma, or reagent antiserum

24
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What is the primary source of antigens in routine blood bank testing?

Red cell membrane

25
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When setting up a blood bank test, which source (antibody or antigen) should be added first?

Antibody source

26
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What does anti-human globulin (AHG) detect?

Human antibodies (anti-IgG, anti-C3, or both)

27
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Which blood bank test detects in vivo sensitization?

Direct Antiglobulin Test (DAT)

28
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Which blood bank test detects in vitro sensitization?

Indirect Antiglobulin Test (IAT)

29
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Which step in the IAT removes free globulin molecules?

Washing

30
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Which step in the IAT allows for antibody to attach to the antigen (sensitization)?

Incubation

31
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What type of error can dirty glassware cause in blood bank testing?

False positives

32
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What type of error can an ideal serum-to-cell ratio (not enough or too much antibody/antigen) cause?

False negatives

33
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What is one of the most common Rh haplotypes in the white population?

R1

34
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What is one of the most common Rh haplotypes in the black population?

R0

35
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Patients whose red cells type negative with Ulex Europaeus (anti-H lectin) are phenotypically O, but what is their true blood group?

Bombay

36
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What substances would be found in the secretions of a group AB non-secretor?

Nothing

37
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What color tube is most commonly used for blood bank specimens?

Pink

38
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When does a blood bank specimen typically expire?

The third day at midnight (e.g., drawn Monday, expires Thursday midnight)

39
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What does the term 'murine' mean in the context of reagents?

Derived from a rodent

40
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What portion of the antibody molecule imparts its unique class function?

The constant region of the heavy chain

41
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What is the minimum strength required for a forward type (ABO) reaction to be considered positive?

3+ or greater

42
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What is the minimum strength required for a reverse type (ABO) reaction to be considered positive?

2+ or greater

43
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What immunodominant sugar must be present (making up the H antigen) before A and B sugars can be added to the oligosaccharide chain?

L-fucose (which was referred to as L-glucose in the lecture)

44
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If an error is found on a blood bank label, what is the correct action to take?

Redraw the specimen

45
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What additive is typically found in blood bank specimen tubes to prevent clotting?

EDTA

46
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What percentage of the population is compatible with type O red blood cells (as a recipient)?

100%

47
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Which human blood group has the least amount of H antigen and is therefore most likely to create the Bombay phenotype?

AB blood group

48
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Which ABO subgroups can typically cause mixed field reactions?

A3 and B3

49
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What is the least common ABO type?

AB

50
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A donor blood sample tested negative at immediate spin with anti-D, but positive at the AHG phase. How is this blood labeled?

Rh positive

51
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How is a patient with a negative immediate spin anti-D reaction but a positive AHG phase reaction categorized?

Weak D positive