Boc prep pt 13

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Last updated 8:54 PM on 7/16/26
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100 Terms

1
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What position is used to MMT the gluteus maximus while minimizing hamstring involvement?

Knee and hip extension

2
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Which referral alerts suggest a cardiovascular issue?

Chest pain, shortness of breath, unexplained swelling in arms and legs

3
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Which bony landmarks are located on the calcaneus?

Sustentaculum tali, peroneal tubercle, lateral cuboid articulation

4
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Where is pain typically centralized with plantar fasciitis?

Medial calcaneal tubercle

5
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What outbreak triggers should someone with repeated herpes simplex eruptions avoid?

Fatigue, psychological stress, and sunlight exposure

6
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Which muscles insert on the medial aspect of the tibia just distal to the medial condyle?

Sartorius, gracilis, semitendinosus

7
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What is the initial vascular response following trauma?

Transient vasoconstriction followed by vasodilation

8
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What lung sound is expected with uncontrolled asthma?

Wheezing

9
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A positive Hawkins-Kennedy test indicates pathology in what structures?

Rotator cuff group, especially supraspinatus, or long head of biceps brachii tendon

10
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A 13-year-old athlete with chronic joint pain, stiffness, and swelling without injury may have what condition?

Juvenile idiopathic arthritis

11
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An athlete with polydipsia, polyuria, polyphagia, and weight loss likely has what condition?

Type 1 diabetes mellitus; confirmed with fasting blood glucose levels

12
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What muscle originates from the ribs and inserts on the coracoid process?

Pectoralis minor

13
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What is the highest level of evidence?

Meta-analysis

14
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A test's ability to detect patients who do not have the disorder is called what?

Specificity

15
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After splinting, worsening pain should be assessed by checking what?

Capillary refill distal to the injury site

16
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Athletes who exaggerate or fake signs and symptoms are demonstrating what?

Malingering

17
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When rehabilitating an antagonist muscle while the agonist is overactive, what is the first step?

Stretch the agonist

18
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How is true leg length discrepancy commonly measured?

ASIS and medial malleolus

19
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What joint is known as the Lisfranc joint?

Tarsometatarsal joint

20
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Where does the iliotibial band insert?

Gerdy's tubercle

21
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Which muscles make up the pes anserine group?

Gracilis, sartorius, semitendinosus

22
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How many vertebrae segments make up the spinal column?

33 vertebrae

23
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What is the diagnostic gold standard for trauma to the thorax?

Computer tomography (CT)

24
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What is the gold standard for diagnosing a pulmonary embolism?

Angiogram

25
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What type of airway is frequently used by emergency medical personnel when they cannot visualize the internal structures of the throat?

Blind airway

26
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What device allows a patient to inhale oxygen from a bag connected to oxygen and exhale carbon dioxide?

Non-rebreather mask

27
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What is listening to sounds within the body using a stethoscope called?

Auscultation

28
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What is the final aspect of abdominal evaluation before special tests or diagnostic exams?

Percussion

29
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Which section of the ICF contains history, pain questionnaires, examination notes, and stability test results?

Body structure and functions

30
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Which fractures occur due to cumulative microtrauma?

Stress fractures

31
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When two athletic trainers evaluate the same athlete, what type of reliability must be highest?

Interrater reliability

32
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What is diagnostic accuracy?

How often the same results are obtained

33
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What is the diagnostic gold standard?

A test with the highest diagnostic accuracy, usually more expensive

34
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What does predictive value describe?

How often a positive finding is correct

35
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What does likelihood ratio incorporate?

A test's sensitivity and specificity and is not influenced by prevalence

36
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What is the temporary cessation of breathing called?

Apnea

37
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A patient can extend the leg against gravity but cannot overcome resistance. What MMT grade is this?

Fair 3/5

38
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What provides a broad framework for the examination process?

ICF

39
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Weakness of which muscle causes scapular winging?

Serratus anterior

40
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A Bankart lesion is caused by what ligament pulling off with part of the labrum?

Inferior glenohumeral ligament

41
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What is the starting position for the empty can test?

GH abducted 90° in the scapular plane with the humerus internally rotated

42
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What muscle inserts on the coracoid process?

Pectoralis minor

43
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Injury to what nerve roots may cause deltoid muscle atrophy?

C5 and C6

44
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Which rotator cuff muscle internally rotates the humerus?

Subscapularis

45
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What is the closed-packed position of the GH joint?

90° abduction with external rotation

46
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The upper extremity's only attachment to the axial skeleton occurs at what joint?

Sternoclavicular joint

47
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What radial fracture displaces palmarly?

Smith's fracture

48
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What fracture occurs at the base of the first metacarpal and extends into the articular surface?

Bennett's fracture

49
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Which carpal bone floats on the triquetrum?

Pisiform

50
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What injury involves rupture of the central extensor tendon causing lateral bands to slip palmarly at the PIP?

Boutonnière deformity

51
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Which carpal bone forms the floor of the anatomical snuffbox?

Scaphoid

52
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What wrist pathology is associated with clicking on the ulnar side of the wrist?

Triangular fibrocartilage tear (TFCC)

53
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What nerve travels through Guyon's tunnel?

Ulnar nerve

54
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What is the primary extensor of the lateral four fingers' IP joints and assists with wrist extension?

Extensor Digitorum

55
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What is the angle formed by the long axis of the humerus and ulna?

Carrying angle

56
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Which nerve enters the elbow at the arcade of Struthers?

Ulnar nerve

57
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Which UCL bundle is the primary restraint against valgus force when the elbow is flexed beyond 60°?

Posterior bundle

58
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The radioulnar joints are classified as what type of joint?

Syndesmotic

59
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What forms the lateral humeral articulating surface at the distal border of the lateral epicondyle?

Capitellum

60
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What Y-shaped hip ligament originates from the AIIS?

Iliofemoral ligament

61
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What position describes a posterior hip dislocation?

Adduction and internal rotation

62
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What position is used to MMT the gluteus maximus while minimizing hamstring involvement?

Knee and hip extension

63
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What ligament can be palpated by placing the knee at 90° flexion and externally rotating and abducting the hip?

LCL

64
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Injury to what structure causes edema instead of joint effusion?

LCL

65
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What injury results from an abducted first ray at the MTP joint?

Hallux valgus

66
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What pelvic measurement indicates anterior pelvic tilt?

More than a 10° angle between the ASIS and PSIS relative to horizontal

67
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Which tarsal bone is considered the "keystone" of the medial longitudinal arch?

Navicular

68
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If agonist and antagonist muscles co-contract, what type of muscle action occurs?

Isometric

69
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What imaging modality shows articular cartilage lesions and some soft tissue lesions?

Computed tomography (CT)

70
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What imaging modality visualizes soft tissue structures, especially ligaments and meniscus injuries?

Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)

71
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What imaging modality shows bone lesions, joint surfaces, and joint spaces?

Radiography (X-ray)

72
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What test assesses motor and sensory nerves to detect pathology?

Nerve conduction tests

73
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What imaging method includes a bone scan?

Nuclear medicine

74
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What imaging method is used to guide injections?

Ultrasonic imaging (Ultrasound)

75
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What test evaluates muscle physiology at rest and with activity?

Electromyography (EMG)

76
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What characterizes a second-degree sprain?

A soft but definite endpoint is present

77
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What is growth of extra bone caused by stress reaction or irregular forces called?

Exostosis

78
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Which nerve injury is the least serious?

Neurapraxia

79
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What is the primary function of the anterior longitudinal ligament?

Limits spinal extension

80
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What is the least common form of thoracic outlet syndrome?

Vascular

81
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C4 motor test?

Shoulder shrug

82
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C5 motor test?

Shoulder abduction

83
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C5 reflex test?

Biceps reflex

84
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C5 dermatome?

Deltoid region

85
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C6 motor test?

Elbow flexion

86
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C6 reflex test?

Brachioradialis reflex

87
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C6 dermatome?

Thumb and index finger

88
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C7 motor test?

Elbow extension

89
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C7 reflex test?

Triceps reflex

90
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C7 dermatome?

Middle finger

91
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C8 motor test?

Finger opposition

92
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C8 dermatome?

Ring and pinky finger (ulnar nerve)

93
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T1 motor test?

Finger abduction

94
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T1 dermatome?

Inside of upper arm

95
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What nerve roots make up the cervical plexus?

C1-C4

96
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What is the gold standard for diagnosing an intervertebral disc lesion?

Discography

97
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What is the space where spinal nerve roots exit the vertebral column?

Intervertebral foramen

98
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What is failure of the first sacral vertebra to unite with the remainder of the sacrum called?

Lumbarization

99
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What is the primary flexor of the spine?

Rectus abdominis

100
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Which spinal segment has the greatest ROM and which provides the greatest protection?

Cervical has greatest ROM; thoracic provides greatest protection