Pediatric Nursing: Growth, Development, and Disorders

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Comprehensive practice flashcards covering growth, development, assessment tools (APGAR), and various pediatric congenital and acquired disorders based on the Toprank Review Academy nursing module.

Last updated 2:53 PM on 6/29/26
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51 Terms

1
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How is 'Growth' defined in pediatric nursing?

A physical change and quantitative increase in size of the whole body or any of its parts, with weight being the best index of growth.

2
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3
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When does a growth spurt typically occur in the pediatric population?

During the adolescent period.

4
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How is 'Development' differentiated from 'Growth'?

Development refers to qualitative changes that mark an increase in function, complexity, and progression of skill, continuing even after growth stops at age 2020.

5
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What is the concept of 'Asynchronous Growth'?

The principle that the whole body does not grow at once; different regions and systems develop at different rates and times.

6
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What are the two periods during which the pace of growth is most rapid?

The infancy period and adolescence.

7
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Which body tissue experiences its peak growth during the first year of life?

Neurologic tissue.

8
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What is the 'Cephalocaudal' principle of development?

Development proceeds from the head to the tail (e.g., a newborn lifts their head before their chest).

9
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What is the 'Proximal to Distal' principle of development?

Development starts from the midline of the body and progresses towards the extremities.

10
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Define the age period for a 'Neonate'.

The first 2828 days of life.

11
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What are the age ranges for 'Toddler' and 'Preschooler'?

Toddler: 131-3 years; Preschooler: 464-6 years.

12
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According to Freud, what is the psychosexual stage for an infant?

The Oral stage, where the world is explored using the mouth.

13
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What is Erikson's developmental task for the School-age child?

Sense of Industry versus Inferiority (to do things well).

14
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What is the expected vocabulary size for a 55-year-old child?

21002100 words.

15
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What type of play is characteristic of infants?

Solitary play.

16
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In Piaget’s theory, what occurs during the 'Secondary circular reaction' stage (484-8 months)?

Focus shifts from the body to the environment.

17
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What is the characteristic fear and play style of a Toddler?

Fear: Separation Anxiety; Play: Parallel play.

18
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What are the physical signs of readiness for toilet training in a child?

Staying dry for 22 hours, waking up dry from a nap, and the ability to sit, squat, walk, and remove clothing.

19
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Define the 'Oedipus complex' and 'Electra complex' in preschoolers.

Oedipus complex is a boy's strong emotional attachment to his mother; Electra complex is a girl's attachment to her father.

20
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What is 'Centering' as observed in preschoolers?

The tendency to look at an object and see only one of its characteristics (e.g., seeing a banana is yellow but not noticing it is long).

21
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According to Piaget, what capability characterizes 'Concrete operational' thought (7127-12 years)?

Systematic reasoning, classification, and awareness of reversibility.

22
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What are the five criteria of the APGAR screening test?

Appearance (color), Pulse (heart rate), Grimace (reflex irritability), Activity (muscle tone), and Respiration.

23
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Interpret an APGAR score of 474-7.

Fair; needs further observation, stimulation, and suctioning.

24
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What is considered a normal birth weight range for a newborn?

2.54.0kg2.5-4.0\,\text{kg}.

25
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How much birth weight does a newborn typically lose in the first few days?

5%5\% to 10%10\% (66 to 10oz10\,\text{oz}).

26
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Describe the 'Moro' reflex.

In response to a loud noise or sudden movement, the newborn symmetrically abducts and extends the arms.

27
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What is the significance of a positive Babinski sign in a newborn?

Toes hyperextend while the big toe dorsiflexes; it is normal until 11 year of age, but its absence indicates a need for neurological examination.

28
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At what age do the anterior and posterior fontanels typically close?

Anterior: 121812-18 months; Posterior: 232-3 months.

29
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What is 'Caput succedaneum'?

Swelling of the scalp caused by prolonged labor that crosses over the suture line.

30
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What may low-set ears in a newborn indicate?

Chromosomal disease such as Trisomy 2121 (Down Syndrome) or kidney anomalies.

31
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What does nasal flaring indicate in a newborn?

Respiratory distress.

32
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What vessels are found in a normal umbilical cord?

22 arteries and 11 vein.

33
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What is 'Cryptorchidism'?

A condition where one or both testicles are not present in the scrotum (undescended testes).

34
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How is 'Myelomeningocele' characterized?

The most severe form of Spina Bifida, featuring a herniated sac containing meninges, spinal fluid, and a portion of the spinal cord/nerves.

35
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What daily intake of folic acid is advised for pregnant women to prevent spinal cord disorders?

600micrograms600\,\text{micrograms}.

36
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What are Macewen's sign and Bossing sign in Hydrocephalus?

Macewen's: A cracked-pot sound upon percussion of separated skull bones; Bossing: A bulging brow.

37
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What findings in CSF indicate Bacterial Meningitis?

Clouding of CSF, increased protein, and decreased glucose.

38
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What are Kernig's and Brudzinski's signs?

Kernig's: Inability to extend the leg when the thigh is flexed; Brudzinski's: Neck flexion causes adduction/flexion of lower extremities.

39
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Describe 'Spastic' Cerebral Palsy.

The most common type, resulting from cortex affection, characterized by a scissor-like gait.

40
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What are 'Brushfield's spots' in Down Syndrome?

White specks in the iris of the eye.

41
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What is the 'machinery-like murmur' diagnostic of?

Patent Ductus Arteriosus (PDA).

42
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What is the pathognomonic sign of Coarctation of the Aorta (COA)?

Bounding radial pulse and absent femoral pulse.

43
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Name the four defining features of Tetralogy of Fallot.

Pulmonary stenosis, Right Ventricular (RV) hypertrophy, Overriding aorta, and Ventricular Septal Defect (VSD).

44
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What is the proper positioning for a cyanotic child during a 'Tet spell'?

Lateral position, knee-chest, or squatting.

45
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What emergency precaution must be taken with Epiglottitis?

Never attempt to visualize the epiglottis with a tongue blade or obtain a throat culture as it can cause complete glottis obstruction.

46
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What grains must be eliminated in a Gluten-free diet for Celiac Disease?

Barley, Rye, Oats, and Wheat (B-R-O-W).

47
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What is the 'double bubble' sign on an X-ray indicative of?

Duodenal atresia.

48
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What type of stool is classically associated with Hirschsprung’s Disease?

Ribbon-like stools.

49
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How do Omphalocele and Gastroschisis differ regarding their membranes?

Omphalocele has an intact peritoneal sac covering the organs, while Gastroschisis has no membrane covering the exposed bowel.

50
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What is the difference between Epispadias and Hypospadias?

Epispadias: urethral opening is on the dorsal surface; Hypospadias: urethral opening is on the ventral or undersurface.

51
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Define the four types of Talipes (Clubfoot).

  1. Plantarflexion (equinus); 2. Dorsiflexion (heel lower than forefoot); 3. Varus deviation (foot turns in); 4. Valgus deviation (foot turns out).