🍎🧑‍🏫AMGOV FINAL EXAM STUDY GUIDE FALL 2025🤓📝

Individual citizens influence Congress and its acts through
A) civil disobedience
B) congressional elections
C) organized peaceful protests
D) All of these answers are correct
E) letters and emails to congressional staff members

D) All of these answers are correct

Which of the following statements is true?
A) House members serve for two years, and Senate members serve for four years
B) House members serve for two years, and Senate members serve for six years
C) House members serve four years, and Senate members serve eight years
D) Both House and Senate members serve for four years
E) None of these answers are correct

B) House members serve for two years, and Senate members serve for six years

To address the issue of racial imbalance in the House of Representatives, state legislatures
A) constructed a kind of gerrymandering called a minority-majority district
B) constructed a kind of gerrymandering called a majority-minority district
C) created a practice known as “packing” districts to exert influence in electing representatives of color in majority districts
D) created a practice known as “cracking” districts to break up majority-white congressional districts
E) None of these answers are correct

B) constructed a kind of gerrymandering called a majority-minority district

The practice of redrawing electoral boundaries for political advantage is known as
A) majority-minority district formation
B) gerrymandering
C) reapportionment
D) redistricting
E) casework

B) gerrymandering

Historically, what percentage of incumbent members of the House of Representatives running for reelection win?
A) 84 percent
B) 60 percent
C) 90 percent
D) 96 percent
E) 33 percent

D) 96 percent

Which of these powers is/are granted to Congress by the Constitution?
A) to borrow money and regulate currency
B) taxation, spending, and establishment of tariffs
C) administration of post offices
D) punishing illegal acts on the high seas
E) All of these answers are correct

E) All of these answers are correct

Because of the necessary and proper clause, Congress exercises a scope of authority.
A) broad
B) reasonable
C) limited
D) restricted
E) tenuous

A) broad

Within the instructed delegate model, elected representatives act
A) according to their conscience at all times
B) mostly according to their conscience and occasionally in line with constituents
C) equally according to conscience and in line with constituents
D) in line with constituents, unless constituents' views contradict representatives' personal views
E) in line with constituents, even if those views contradict representatives' personal views

E) in line with constituents, even if those views contradict representatives' personal views

When a member of Congress advocates on behalf of a constituent who has an issue with a bureaucratic agency, they are playing the role of
A) legislator
B) caseworker
C) ombudsperson
D) trustee
E) instructed delegate

C) ombudsperson

Identify the correct chronological order of a legislative bill's passage.
A) introduction, committee review, conference committee reconciliation, House and Senate approval, presidential approval
B) introduction, conference committee reconciliation, committee review, House and Senate approval, presidential approval
C) introduction, committee review, House and Senate approval, conference committee reconciliation, presidential approval
D) committee review, introduction, conference committee reconciliation, House and Senate approval, presidential approval
E) introduction, conference committee reconciliation, House and Senate approval, committee review, presidential approval

A) introduction, committee review, conference committee reconciliation, House and Senate approval, presidential approval

The formal process of certifying a presidential election.
A) takes place on the Monday following the second Wednesday of December
B) takes place on Wednesday, the day after the presidential election
C) takes place when the slate of electors chosen in each state meet in a joint session to cast their electoral votes
D) begins with the announcement in a joint session of Congress on January 20th
E) takes place within two weeks of the election

C) takes place when the slate of electors chosen in each state meet in a joint session to cast their electoral votes

Executive agreements are considered to be in force for how long?
A) forever—they are the same as treaties
B) for 100 years
C) for as long as that political party retains presidential power
D) for 8 years
E) for the term of the administration that negotiates them

E) for the term of the administration that negotiates them

Which of the following is NOT a power vested in the president by the Constitution?
A) serve as supreme military commander of the armed forces
B) the power to declare war
C) deciding when to send troops into battle
D) control over military strategy
E) act as supreme military commander of the Coast Guard

B) the power to declare war

Many vice presidents have served a largely _____ role, performing tasks such as visiting foreign nations.
A) political
B) ideological
C) ceremonial
D) informal
E) bureaucratic

C) ceremonial

How many departments serve under the cabinet, the group of experts chosen as advisers by the president?
A) 10
B) 12
C) 15
D) 24
E) 28

C) 15

Which president began the practice of using a cabinet to assist in executive governance?
A) George Washington
B) James Madison
C) Thomas Jefferson
D) John Adams
E) Andrew Jackson

A) George Washington

Who was the first black secretary of state?
A) Condoleeza Rice
B) Thurgood Marshall
C) Colin Powell
D) Eric Holder
E) Lisa Jackson

C) Colin Powell

Which of these offices acts as the launch pad for the implementation of presidential policy?
A) Executive Office of the President (EOP)
B) Council of Economic Advisors
C) National Security Council
D) Office of Management and Budget
E) White House counsel

A) Executive Office of the President (EOP)

Which office within the Executive Office of the President is responsible for the creation of the president's annual budget?
A) Bureau of the Budget
B) Office of Management and Budget
C) Department of the Treasury
D) Office of the Chief of Staff
E) Federal Reserve

B) Office of Management and Budget

The illness of which president led to his wife assuming some of his responsibilities and decision making?
A) John F. Kennedy
B) Lyndon Johnson
C) Bill Clinton
D) George H. W. Bush
E) Woodrow Wilson

E) Woodrow Wilson

During the Civil War, President Lincoln suspended the civil liberties of alleged agitators and drafted state militias into national service. He did this using what set of powers that are used during times of national crisis?
A) emergency powers
B) statutory powers
C) inherent powers
D) executive privilege
E) executive orders

A) emergency powers

Senior executives of the national bureaucracy, known as Senior Executive Service (SES) bureaucrats
A) are non-career and temporary appointees hired without open, competitive procedures
B) make up the majority of the national bureaucracy
C) All of these answers are correct
D) are political appointees that can be hired and fired by the president for any reason
E) ensure that the executive management of the Government of the United States is responsive to the needs, policies, and goals of the Nation and otherwise is of the highest quality

E) ensure that the executive management of the Government of the United States is responsive to the needs, policies, and goals of the Nation and otherwise is of the highest quality

According to Max Weber, bureaucracies possess which of the following features?
A) division of labor and specialization of job tasks
B) hiring systems based on worker competency
C) hierarchy with a vertical chain of command
D) standard operating procedures
E) All of these answers are correct

E) All of these answers are correct

Senior executive service (SES) positions are
A) political appointments
B) civil service positions
C) congressionally appointed
D) hybrids of political appointments and civil service positions
E) congressionally appointed civil service positions

D) hybrids of political appointments and civil service positions

Which title of the 1964 Civil Rights Act prohibits discrimination in personnel practices based on race, color, ethnicity, age, and disabilities that can be reasonably accommodated?
A) Title I
B) Title III
C) Title V
D) Title VI
E) Title VII

E) Title VII

Which title of the 1964 Civil Rights Act prohibits federally funded institutions from discriminating in educational opportunities on the basis of race, color, ethnicity, age, and disabilities that can be reasonably accommodated?
A) Title I
B) Title III
C) Title V
D) Title VI
E) Title VII

D) Title VI

Federal civil servants can be fired for poor work quality, or
A) belligerence
B) recalcitrance
C) misfeasance
D) malfeasance
E) nonfeasance

C) misfeasance

Which president proposed the civil service reforms that led to passage of the Civil Service Reform Act of 1978?
A) Lyndon Johnson
B) Richard Nixon
C) Gerald Ford
D) Jimmy Carter
E) Ronald Reagan

D) Jimmy Carter

According to political scientists, how many stages are there in the public policy cycle?
A) three
B) four
C) five
D) six
E) seven

E) seven

Which of the following is a part of the federal bureaucracy that primarily serves the legislative branch?
A) Government Accountability Office
B) Office of Management and Budget
C) Council of Economic Advisors
D) Office of Government Ethics
E) General Services Administration

A) Government Accountability Office

Which of the following open up government functions and documents to the public, ensuring transparency and public access to decision making?
A) authorization laws
B) executive orders
C) appropriations laws
D) sunshine laws
E) sunset clauses

D) sunshine laws

In the federal judicial system, the main court(s) of original jurisdiction for most cases is/are
A) trial courts
B) trial courts and appeals courts
C) appeals courts and the Supreme Court
D) trial courts and the Supreme Court
E) Supreme Court

A) trial courts

Which early landmark case granted the Supreme Court its most significant power?
A) Marbury v. Madison
B) Dred Scott v. Sandford
C) Lochner v. Ellison
D) McCulloch v. Maryland
E) Bowers v. Hardwick

A) Marbury v. Madison

The authority of the Supreme Court to determine the constitutionality of governmental action is known as
A) jurisdiction
B) judicial review
C) precedent
D) common law
E) stare decisis

B) judicial review

The principle of stare decisis, a Latin phrase that means "let the decision stand," is the basis of the modern legal concept of
A) jury trials
B) precedent
C) code law
D) judicial statute
E) the primacy of common law

B) precedent

Which of these special court's processes drew study by the Justice Department’s independent inspector after its involvement in the FBI's Russia investigation?
A) Court of International Trade
B) U.S. Court of Military Appeals
C) U.S. Tax Court
D) FISA (Foreign Intelligence Surveillance Act) Court
E) U.S. Court of Veterans' Appeals

D) FISA (Foreign Intelligence Surveillance Act) Court

How many federal district courts are there in the U.S. court system?
A) 13
B) 39
C) 56
D) 76
E) 94

E) 94

How many justices are there on the Supreme Court?
A) 5
B) 7
C) 9
D) 11
E) 13

C) 9

Senatorial courtesy, used today in the selection of _______, gives a senator the right to veto an appointment to when the senator and nominee are from the same home state.
A) state high court judges
B) district court and courts of appeals judges
C) state courts of appeals judges
D) Senate Judiciary Committee members
E) Supreme Court justices

B) district court and courts of appeals judges

A request to the Supreme Court that it review a case that was already decided is made via a(n)
A) discuss list
B) writ of certiorari
C) certiorari petition
D) amicus curiae
E) brief

B) writ of certiorari

For the Supreme Court to hear a case, how many of the nine justices must want to hear it?
A) 4
B) 5
C) 6
D) 7
E) 9

A) 4

A Supreme Court justice who agrees with the majority in a case, but disagrees in whole or in part with the majority opinion, has the option to write a _______ opinion.
A) minority
B) dissenting
C) concurring
D) supporting
E) congruent

C) concurring

Judicial policy making includes defending and creating individual rights through
A) judicial activism
B) upholding the Bill of Rights
C) the interpretation of laws by the courts
D) upholding legal precedents set by previous courts
E) discretion in applying the legal principle of stare decisis

A) judicial activism

The concept of a living constitution is most related to which of the following?
A) originalism
B) the rule of law
C) stare decisis
D) judicial restraint
E) judicial activism

E) judicial activism

Economists cite all of these factors as evidence of a healthy economy EXCEPT
A) low unemployment
B) low inflation rate
C) increasing domestic product
D) GDP growth of 2% or higher
E) a decrease in the national tax base

E) a decrease in the national tax base

What type of economy is the U.S. economy?
A) pure capitalist
B) regulated capitalist
C) limited capitalist
D) limited mercantilist
E) regulated socialist

B) regulated capitalist

Who wrote Wealth of Nations, which argued in favor of a laissez-faire (hands-off) economic system?
A) Adam Smith
B) Benjamin Franklin
C) Thomas Hobbes
D) Jean-Jacques Rousseau
E) John Locke

A) Adam Smith

According to Keynesian economics, what should the government do during an economic boom?
A) decrease government spending and possibly increase taxes
B) increase taxes and government spending
C) decrease taxes and possibly government spending
D) increase government spending and decrease taxes
E) increase government spending despite decreased revenues

A) decrease government spending and possibly increase taxes

Fiscal policy is a combination of policy and policy.
A) tax; currency
B) tax; economic
C) tax; spending
D) economic; currency
E) budget; spending

C) tax; spending

Which of the following statements about monetarism is true?
A) It argues for the deregulation of the money supply
B) It believes that too much money in circulation leads to high inflation
C) It believes that too much money in circulation creates deflationary pressures on the economy
D) It is based on the belief that discretionary spending by the government is necessary for a healthy economy
E) It advocates cutting taxes and deregulating business to stimulate the economy

B) It believes that too much money in circulation leads to high inflation

Which economist developed the theory of monetarism?
A) John Maynard Keynes
B) Adam Smith
C) David Ricardo
D) Milton Friedman
E) Walt Rostow

D) Milton Friedman

Which of the following is/are among the criteria used by the United Nations to comparatively assess global living standards in the Human Development Index (HDI)?
A) a long and healthy life, educational opportunities, and decent standard of living
B) access to food, clothing, and shelter
C) living, fuel, and transportation costs
D) physical health, income levels, and educational access
E) access to adequate medical care, food, and shelter

A) a long and healthy life, educational opportunities, and decent standard of living

Payroll taxes fund
A) emergency funds like the COVID-19 relief package
B) transportation and infrastructure projects
C) Social Security and Medicare
D) homeowner's credits and low-income tax credits
E) poverty programs and government loans to small businesses

C) Social Security and Medicare

What date signals the beginning of the national government's fiscal year (FY)?
A) January 1
B) April 1
C) July 1
D) August 1
E) October 1

E) October 1

What type of tax takes a larger percentage of wealthier taxpayers' income and a smaller percentage of the income of those who earn less?
A) progressive tax
B) proportional tax
C) regressive tax
D) direct tax
E) indirect tax

A) progressive tax

The complexity and breadth of the federal government's domestic responsibilities have grown due to
A) the plurality of citizens' policy priorities
B) the diversity of needs and expectations
C) politicians' hesitancy to eliminate programs
D) politicians' refusal to decrease program costs
E) All of these answers are correct

E) All of these answers are correct

Safety net programs
A) are generally supported by those with a conservative ideology
B) deal exclusively with the economic well-being of citizens
C) are a group of policies that concern public safety and national security issues
D) are programs that seek to ensure that the physiological needs of citizens are met
E) are rarely supported by those that are liberal in inclination, like Democrats

D) are programs that seek to ensure that the physiological needs of citizens are met

All of the following are considered cash transfers EXCEPT.
A) in-kind assistance
B) Social Security checks
C) the Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program
D) Medicaid services
E) tax breaks

D) Medicaid services

Government benefits guaranteed to all who meet the eligibility requirements are best known as programs.
A) entitlement
B) contributory
C) social insurance
D) noncontributory
E) limited-access

A) entitlement

Which of the following events served as a catalyst for the development of a U.S. energy policy?
A) election of Ronald Reagan
B) explosion of toxic waste site in Elizabeth, New Jersey
C) construction of the Keystone XL pipeline
D) oil spill from the Exxon Valdez
E) OPEC oil embargo

E) OPEC oil embargo

What was the first U.S. climate change policy, enacted in 2015?
A) Kyoto Protocol
B) Resource Conservation and Recovery Act
C) Clean Power Plan
D) American First Energy Plan
E) Strategic Petroleum Reserve

C) Clean Power Plan

Which of the following is true of the way TANF is designed and administered?
A) TANF has helped more low-income women stay at home to raise young children, a core goal of the program
B) The money comes from the federal government, but states determine eligibility, benefits, and programs
C) A family can receive TANF benefits indefinitely, but only if a minimum of part-time employment is proven
D) Education and training programs do not qualify a potential beneficiary to receive payments
E) TANF is generally more successful during times of economic downturn or poor health for the U.S. economy

B) The money comes from the federal government, but states determine eligibility, benefits, and programs

Under the 1996 Personal Responsibility and Work Opportunity Reconciliation Act (PRWORA), Temporary Assistance to Needy Families (TANF) replaced the AFDC program. TANF is different from AFDC because it
A) deals with both single family and two-family households
B) is not an entitlement program
C) takes all flexibility away from the states and replaces it with strict federal regulations
D) does not have work requirements
E) is not concerned with children's parentage

B) is not an entitlement program

Which president's "Great Society" plan created government programs such as Medicare and Medicaid?
A) Dwight Eisenhower
B) John F. Kennedy
C) Lyndon B. Johnson
D) Richard Nixon
E) Jimmy Carter

C) Lyndon B. Johnson

How does the Affordable Care Act affect Medicaid?
A) It reduces Medicaid benefits and provides the smaller benefits through the Affordable Care Act
B) It ended all Medicaid benefits
C) It requires that Medicaid services be merged with Medicare
D) It allows states to expand Medicaid for low-income people
E) It made Medicaid the centerpiece of health care in the United States

D) It allows states to expand Medicaid for low-income people

Which of the following executive departments have the largest roles in shaping United States foreign policy?
A) State and Homeland Security
B) State and Defense
C) State and the Treasury
D) Treasury and Defense
E) Defense and Homeland Security

B) State and Defense

Which of the following statements is most accurate regarding the formulation of foreign policy?
A) The State Department and the National Security Council focus on long-term objectives, while the president tends to focus on short-term goals
B) The State Department tends to take a long-term view of world affairs, while the National Security Council focuses on short-term objectives
C) The State Department, the National Security Council, and the president all maintain the same foreign policy objectives and are careful not to have competing viewpoints
D) The president focuses on long-term objectives, while the State Department and the National Security Council tend to focus on short-term goals
E) The National Security Council tends to take a long-term view of world affairs, while the State Department focuses on short-term objectives

B) The State Department tends to take a long-term view of world affairs, while the National Security Council focuses on short-term objectives

Which president first warned of the rising influence of the military-industrial complex?
A) Franklin D. Roosevelt
B) Harry S. Truman
C) Dwight D. Eisenhower
D) John F. Kennedy
E) Lyndon B. Johnson

C) Dwight D. Eisenhower

Generally, public opinion plays a ______ role in shaping and influencing foreign policy in comparison to the role it plays in domestic issues.
A) nonexistent
B) small
C) very similar
D) more influential
E) dramatically greater

B) small

What term is used for the influence of domestic interests on foreign policy?
A) intermestics
B) inter-foreign relations
C) isolationism
D) interventionism
E) pre-emption

A) intermestics

Which president introduced the notion of the United States as an "international police power"?
A) William McKinley
B) Theodore Roosevelt
C) William Howard Taft
D) Woodrow Wilson
E) Herbert Hoover

B) Theodore Roosevelt

The North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) is an example of which of the following?
A) international financial organization
B) brinksmanship
C) détente
D) regional security alliance
E) mutually assured destruction

D) regional security alliance

What was the Soviet Union's response to the creation of NATO?
A) enactment of the policy of détente
B) refusal to sit on the United Nations Security Council
C) institution of the use of containment
D) formation of the Warsaw Pact
E) refusal to contribute to the Marshall Plan

D) formation of the Warsaw Pact

The "Iron Curtain" described the dominance of communism in which region?
A) Northern Europe
B) Western Europe
C) Southern Europe
D) Eastern Europe
E) Europe as a whole

D) Eastern Europe

The concept of limited war was first applied in which of the following conflicts?
A) World War I
B) World War II
C) Korean War
D) Vietnam War
E) First Gulf War

C) Korean War

Which of the following events is the best example of brinkmanship?
A) the Korean War
B) the Cold War
C) the Cuban Missile Crisis
D) President Nixon's visit to China
E) the Vietnam War

C) the Cuban Missile Crisis

The Current constitution of the state of Georgia, adopted in 1983, is the
a. first constitution
b. 4th constitution
c. 5th constitution
d. 10th constitution

d. 10th constitution

How old a candidate must be to run for a senate seat in the Georgia General Assembly?
a. at least 21 years old
b. at least 35 years old
c. at least 30 years old
d. at least 25 years old

d. at least 25 years old

The Georgia General Assembly has
a. 535 voting members
b. 236 voting members
c. 56 voting members
d. 180 voting members
e. 100 Senators

b. 236 voting members

One major difference between the US constitution and the constitution of the state of Georgia is that
a. the US constitution is longer than the constitution of the state of Georgia
b. the two constitutions are virtually the same
c. the constitution of the state of Georgia includes clauses about local governments; the US constitution does not include clauses about local government
d. the US constitution includes the Bill of Rights; the constitution of the state of Georgia does not include the Bill of Rights

c. the constitution of the state of Georgia includes clauses about local governments; the US constitution does not include clauses about local government

The executive power of the governor of Georgia is plural executive. This means
a. that the governor has an unchecked appointment power
b. that the governor has a very limited appointment power
c. that no officials in the executive departments in Georgia are elected
d. that all the officials in the executive departments in Georgia are elected

a. that the governor has an unchecked appointment power

What does Home rule means?
a. It means that local governments cannot rule themselves in any matter
b. It means that local governments can practice self-government in specific areas determined by the state government
c. It means that the Dillon rule has not affect whatsoever
d. It means that the state of Georgia has no power over the local government

b. It means that local governments can practice self-government in specific areas determined by the state government

Unlike the US Congress legislative calendar, the Georgia General Assembly has 40 legislative days.
a. True
b. False

a. True

Unlike the president of the United States, the governor of Georgia can pick and choose parts of legislation he/she agrees with and rejects parts he/she disagrees with (line-item veto)
a. True
b. False

a. True

Unlike Federal judges who are appointed, the state judges in Georgia are usually elected
a. True
b. False

a. True

Dillon’s Rule limits local government’s power to what has been specifically allocated to them by the state government in local matters.
a. True
b. False

a. True