ATPL (Philippines) - Operational Procedures 1

1. Who is responsible for reporting acts of unlawful interference?

a. The Commander or the Operator

b. The ATCU for the airspace in which the event occurred

c. Any member of the flight crew

d. Any person on board the aeroplane

a. The Commander or the Operator

2. To act as co-pilot for take-off or landing, you must have:

a. Acted as PIC or co-pilot on type in the last 90 days

b. Acted as PIC or co-pilot on type in the last 30 days

c. Acted as PIC or co-pilot on type in the last 60 days

d. Been at the controls for landing in the same type recently

a. Acted as PIC or co-pilot on type in the last 90 days

3. What is required for navigation in IMC?

a. Radio equipment and equipment for guidance until visual point

b. Anti-icing equipment

c. A serviceable weather radar

d. One VHF box and one HF box

a. Radio equipment and equipment for guidance until visual point

4. What is the minimum visibility for a Cat A aircraft during a circling approach?

a. 1500m

b. 1600m

c. 2400m

d. 3600m

a. 1500m

5. Who checks, before flight, that the aircraft's weight is such that the flight can be safely made and that any transported cargo is properly distributed and secured?

a. The company's cargo technicians

b. The captain

c. The mechanic on board, or in his absence the co-pilot

d. The operator

b. The captain

6. When do you not need a destination alternate aerodrome?

a. If there is a reasonable certainty that at the ETA at the destination aerodrome and a reasonable time before and after you can expect VMC

b. If the flight time is less than 6 hours

c. If the flight time is less than 1 hour

d. If your operator deems the weather to be suitable for a visual landing

a. If there is a reasonable certainty that at the ETA at the destination aerodrome and a reasonable time before and after you can expect VMC

7. What is the currency requirement for a pilot?

a. 3 take-offs and landings on an aeroplane of the same type within the last 90 days

b. 3 take-offs and landings on an aeroplane of the same type within the last 60 days

c. 3 take-offs and landings on an aeroplane of the same type or approved simulator within the last 90 days

d. 3 take-offs and landings on an aeroplane of the same type or approved simulator within the last 60 days

c. 3 take-offs and landings on an aeroplane of the same type or approved simulator within the last 90 days

8. When can special VFR be commenced?

a. Visibility greater than 1500m

b. Greater than 3km vis

c. Visibility no more than 3000m

d. Greater than 5km vis

b. Greater than 3km vis

9. When does a pilot apply the limitations of the MEL?

a. At parking before commencement of taxi

b. Prior to take-off

c. At any time in flight

d. Any time up to coming to a complete stop and applying the parking brake

d. Any time up to coming to a complete stop and applying the parking brake

10. What is the minimum RVR for a CAT IIIC approach?

a. No minimum

b. 50m

c. 75m

d. 100m

a. No minimum

11. In the event of a precautionary landing, who is responsible for alerting the emergency services?

a. ATC

b. The Commander

c. The local constabulary

d. The Operations Dispatcher

a. ATC

12. What is DH used for?

a. Visual maneuvering

b. Circling to land

c. Precision approaches

d. Non-precision approaches

c. Precision approaches

13. What is the system minimum for an NDB approach?

a. 200ft

b. 250ft

c. 300ft

d. 350ft

c. 300ft

One shall not initiate any flight made in accordance with instrument flight rules unless the available information indicates that the conditions at the aerodrome of predicted destination or, at an aerodrome of alternative destination, are: (Annex 6, part1)

a. At the predicted time of arrival better than the minimum conditions required for aerodrome use

b. At the predicted time of arrival equal to or better than the minimum conditions required for aerodrome use

c. At the predicted time of take-off equal to or better than the minimum conditions required for aerodrome use

d. At the predicted time of arrival, and for a reasonable period before and after such a predicted time, equal to or better than the minimum conditions required for aerodrome use

b. At the predicted time of arrival equal to or better than the minimum conditions required for aerodrome use

15. The minimum visibility for a Cat C aeroplane on a circling approach:

a. 2400m

b. 2500m

c. 2600m

d. 2700

a. 2400m

16. On an ILS approach, you are told that the weather has dropped below company minima. When must you abort the approach?

a. Start of the glide-slope descent

b. FAF

c. Inner marker

d. Outer marker

d. Outer marker

17. Fuel is to be jettisoned:

a. Over the sea and then only above 10,000ft

b. Over the sea or over land above 10,000ft AGL

c. Anywhere and at any height if unavoidable in an emergency

d. Over the sea, or over land above 4000ft in summer or 7000ft in winter

c. Anywhere and at any height if unavoidable in an emergency

18. In the event of an act of unlawful interference, which of the following is the correct procedure to be taken by the pilot in command?

a. Squawk 7700 if the situation requires and continue the flight as per the ATC clearance received if possible

b. Squawk 7500 and broadcast a warning to ATC other traffic on 121.500MHz or the frequency in use whilst maintaining the flight as cleared

c. Squawk 7500 (or 7700 if required) and broadcast a warning if the situation forces deviation from the cleared flight plan

d. If forced to deviate from the flight plan, climb or descend to altitudes that differ from the normal cruising altitudes by 1000ft

c. Squawk 7500 (or 7700 if required) and broadcast a warning if the situation forces deviation from the cleared flight plan

19. With what a met phenomenon is wind shear most associated?

a. Thunderstorms

b. Passage of a warm front

c. Tropical revolving storms

d. Standing mountain waves

a. Thunderstorms

20. A Flight Data Recorder is required in aeroplanes over:

a. 20,000kg

b. 5,700kg

c. 10,000kg

d. 7,000kg

b. 5,700kg

21. After an accident, the operator of an aeroplane equipped with a flight recorder must keep the original recordings for a minimum period of:

a. 30 days

b. 90 days

c. 45 days

d. 60 days

d. 60 days

22. At the alternate aerodrome, the commander of a turbojet engine aeroplane should have a fuel quantity (final reserve) sufficient for flying during:

a. 30 minutes at holding flight speed at 1,500 ft

b. 45 minutes at holding flight speed at 1,500 ft

c. 30 minutes at cruising speed

d. 45 minutes at cruising speed

a. 30 minutes at holding flight speed at 1,500 ft

23. Aircrafts are categorized according to their threshold speeds, multiplied by a factor. What aircraft category corresponds to a range of speeds 141kts - 165kts?

a. B

b. E

c. D

d. C

d. C

24. During a slow decompression, passengers will occur:

a. The cabin temperature will fall as pressure reduces

b. Body cavities (sinuses, ears, etc.) will become pressurised and may require assistance in venting

c. As soon as the pressure falls, the oxygen drop-out system will operate

d. No contra effects, as slow decompression has no effect on the human body

b. Body cavities (sinuses, ears, etc.) will become pressurised and may require assistance in venting

25. Which of the following conditions is worst with regard to wake vortex turbulence?

a. Lights winds near the surface

b. Strong winds near the surface

c. Marked vertical wind shear

d. Marked atmospheric turbulence near the ground

a. Lights winds near the surface

26. Where a light category aeroplane is landing behind a medium category aeroplane, minimum separation distance in NM is:

a. 6

b. 5

c. 4

d. 3

b. 5

27. In the event of cabin depressurization, the actions of the pilot will be to:

a. Immediately commence a diversion to a suitable alternate

b. Increase engine power to provide additional airflow to the pressurization systems

c. Maintain the aeroplane altitude to prevent further damage to the airframe by over loading of the structure

d. Commence a descent to an altitude where the supplemental oxygen supply is sufficient for all crew and passengers

d. Commence a descent to an altitude where the supplemental oxygen supply is sufficient for all crew and passengers

28. One way in which passengers can be reassured during an emergency is:

a. To regularly see members of the flight crew calmly moving about the cabin in a relaxed manner

b. For the captain or first officer to keep a running commentary going over the PA

c. For the cabin staff to ensure the passengers are aware of what is happening and that they are complying with instructions

d. For the cabin staff to direct passengers' attention to the emergency passenger brief cards and make sure that they have read them

c. For the cabin staff to ensure the passengers are aware of what is happening and that they are complying with instructions

29. The method of alighting the aeroplane on water during a ditching is to:

a. Carry out a normal approach with flaps and gear selected as normal but to calculate all speeds plus 10kts

b. Reduce the approach angle to 1.5deg (150ft/mile), add 15kts to all speeds, keep the aeroplane clean (no flaps or gear) and fly it into the surface

c. Fly a normal approach but keep the gear up and land at lowest possible speed with the nose raised for the tail to strike first

d. Fly a normal approach to stalling speed and then drop the aeroplane vertically onto the water

c. Fly a normal approach but keep the gear up and land at lowest possible speed with the nose raised for the tail to strike first

30. If the captain elects to ditch the aeroplane, it is recommended to:

a. Land along the swell

b. Land into the swell but down wind

c. Land into the swell but into wind

d. Land into wind regardless of the swell direction if the wind speed is over 20kts

a. Land along the swell

31. Shortly after take-off, the altitude of the aeroplane suffers an abrupt pitch-up and IAS rapidly decreases followed quickly by a decrease in altitude. Engine indications are normal. You should suspect what and what should you do?

a. Marked temperature drop; apply full power

b. Loss of head wind or an increase in tail wind; apply full power

c. Incipient engine failure (ignore instruments); lower the nose to gain airspeed

d. Local clear air turbulence; reduce speed to VRA and ride it out

b. Loss of head wind or an increase in tail wind; apply full power

32. If it is suspected that a bomb is on board an aeroplane, the measures that should be taken are designed to:

a. Disable the device

b. Find out what will trigger the device

c. Prevent knowledge of the device on board getting to the passengers

d. Locate and move the device to the 'least risk' location and apply as much padding as possible

d. Locate and move the device to the 'least risk' location and apply as much padding as possible

33. A precautionary landing is a procedure that:

a. Enables the aeroplane to land at the destination with unserviceabilities that prevent a normal instrument approach being carried out

b. Enables a landing after the declaration of a state of emergency or urgency

c. Enables a landing if it is suspected that the undercarriage is not properly lowered

d. Is carried out in the event of landing at an alternate aerodrome

b. Enables a landing after the declaration of a state of emergency or urgency

34. Where a light or medium category aeroplane is taking off behind a heavy category aeroplane on the same runway and from the same point, the minimum separation spacing in minutes is:

a. 1

b. 2

c. 3

d. 4

b. 2

35. When must a radiation indicator be carried?

a. For flight above 29,000ft

b. For flight above 39,000ft

c. For flight above 49,000ft

d. For flight above 59,000ft

c. For flight above 49,000ft

36. An aeroplane is starting a non-precision approach with an MDH of 250ft and minimum visibility of 800 meters. ATC gives threshold, mid-runway and final third RVRs. When may the approach be started?

a. When threshold and mid-runway RVRs are greater than 800m

b. When all 3 RVRs are greater than 800m

c. When the met viz is greater than 800m. RVR is for precision approaches only.

d. When threshold RVR is greater than 800m

d. When threshold RVR is greater than 800m

37. From the flight deck you observe an aeroplane in the forward left position on an opposite parallel track. What Nav light will be used?

a. Green

b. Red

c. White

d. All of the above

b. Red

38. When refuelling is being conducted with passengers embarking or disembarking:

a. Refuelling is strictly prohibited whilst passengers are embarking or disembarking

b. All flight crew must be on board

c. Communications shall be maintained by ground crew and qualified crew on board

d. The stairs shall be fully extended

c. Communications shall be maintained by ground crew and qualified crew on board

39. Where a medium category aeroplane is landing behind a heavy category aeroplane, the minimum separation distance in NM is:

a. 3

b. 4

c. 5

d. 6

c. 5

40. After an act of unlawful interference a report is to be made. When and to whom?

a. Within 10 days and to the Authority of the State of Registry

b. Immediately and to the Authority of the State of the airspace in which the event occurred

c. Without delay, to the designated local authority and the Authority of the State of Registration

d. Without delay, to the designated local authority and the Authority of the State of the Operator

d. Without delay, to the designated local authority and the Authority of the State of the Operator