Units 12, 13 & 14 Test Review

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63 Terms

1
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What role does a captive portal play in open networks?

It acts as a secondary authentication step

2
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What is a potential vulnerability of the WPA2 system?

Its reliance on a shared encryption key

3
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Which feature of WPA3 significantly improves password protection?

Requiring interaction for each password guess

4
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What is a major security concern with BYOD (Bring Your Own Device) policies?

Risk of unpatched devices and insider threats

5
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What is a deauthentication attack designed to do?

Disrupt communication between a device and its Wi-Fi network

6
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Which of the following best describes the purpose of the IEEE 802.11 standards?

To define how radio waves communicate over distances

7
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What is the primary function of the Media Access Control (MAC) in 802.11 networks?

To control access to the wireless medium and avoid collisions

8
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What technology allows an access point to communicate with multiple devices simultaneously?

Multiuser MIMO

9
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Which wireless standard first introduced MIMO technology?

802.11n

10
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What is the primary purpose of network slicing in 5G networks?

To customize network characteristics for different applications

11
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What is the primary function of a Wireless Local Area Network (WLAN)?

To enable devices to communicate wirelessly

12
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How does signal strength (RSSI) affect user experience in a WLAN?

RSSI impacts the reliability and performance of the connection

13
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What is the purpose of a heat map in wireless networking?

To visualize signal strength and coverage

14
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Which type of antenna is best for broad coverage in a WLAN?

Omnidirectional Antenna

15
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What is an ESA in wireless networking?

Extended Service Area

16
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Which of the following best describes throughput?

The actual data successfully transferred

17
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What does RF attenuation refer to?

Decrease in signal strength over distance

18
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What is a common cause of insufficient wireless coverage?

Signal blockage from physical obstacles

19
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What is the recommended channel spacing in the 2.4 GHz band to avoid overlap?

25 MHz

20
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What role do spectrum analyzers play in wireless troubleshooting?

They identify electromagnetic interference

21
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Which of the following is NOT a standard that facilitates smoother roaming in wireless networks?

802.11n

22
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Which layer of the OSI model specifies the medium and interface for data transmission in WANs?

Physical layer

23
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Which of the following is used for addressing at the Network layer in WANs?

Internet Protocol (IP)

24
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What type of routers link customer and provider sites in a WAN?

Customer edge (CE) and provider edge (PE) routers

25
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Which internet type generally requires the most complex and expensive installation process?*

Fiber

26
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What technology does DSL leverage for internet connectivity?

Existing phone lines

27
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Which internet type uses time-division multiplexing?

DSL

28
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Which feature of IKEv2 is particularly beneficial for mobile workers?

MOBIKE support

29
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Which technology enables real-time interaction with desktops or applications directly in the browser for clientless VPNs?

HTML5 canvas element

30
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In which scenario would a site-to-site VPN be most appropriate?

For connecting multiple office locations of a business

31
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Which of the following protocols is known for secure remote access?

SSH

32
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What is the role of a jump box in network security?

To provide a secure access point to other servers

33
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What is the primary security risk associated with using Telnet?

It transmits data, including passwords, in plain text

34
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What is the default port number for RDP (Remote Desktop Protocol)?

3389

35
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Which of the following is a best practice for using RDP securely?

Use a Secure Administrative Workstation (SAW)

36
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Which of the following is NOT typically a component of a remote access policy?

Employee's favorite color

37
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Which network topology is described as having a two-layer structure with spine switches connecting to all leaf switches but not to each other?

Spine and Leaf topology

38
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What does IaaS stand for in cloud service models?

Infrastructure as a Service

39
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Which of the following is a characteristic of SaaS?

It is user-centric and changes software access

40
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Which of the following best describes the relationship between scalability and elasticity in cloud computing?

Scalability is long-term capacity planning, while elasticity is short-term adaptation

41
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A company experiences sudden spikes in web traffic during flash sales. Which scaling approach would be most appropriate to handle these intermittent surges?

Horizontal scaling

42
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In the context of cloud deployment models, which option would be most suitable for a government agency handling classified information?

Private cloud

43
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How does elasticity contribute to cost-effectiveness in cloud computing?

By allowing users to pay only for the resources they consume

44
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Which cloud service model would be most appropriate for a startup that wants to develop and test a new application without investing in infrastructure?

Platform as a Service (PaaS)

45
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What is the primary advantage of using a Content Delivery Network (CDN) for a global e-commerce website?

Reduced latency and improved performance

46
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A company wants to maintain control over sensitive data while leveraging public cloud resources for less critical operations. Which deployment model best suits this scenario?

Hybrid cloud

47
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Which of the following is NOT a typical characteristic of Software as a Service (SaaS)?

Requires significant customization by the end-user

48
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Which traditional network protocol is eliminated in the Spine and Leaf topology?

Spanning Tree Protocol

49
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Which of the following is NOT a key component of a SAN?

User workstations

50
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Which of the following is a benefit of implementing a SAN?

Improved scalability of storage

51
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What is Fibre Channel primarily used for in network environments?

Enabling high-speed communications in storage area networks

52
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In a Fibre Channel network, what is an 'initiator'?

A server with a Host Bus Adapter

53
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What is the primary purpose of a Virtual Private Cloud (VPC)?

To create a segregated portion of a public cloud for exclusive use

54
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Which component is necessary for a subnet to be considered 'public' in a cloud environment?

Internet Gateway

55
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Which cloud connectivity option is best suited for organizations with high bandwidth and low latency requirements for critical applications?

Direct Connect

56
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Which layer of the OSI model does a cloud firewall operate at when performing stateful inspection of connections?

Layer 4

57
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What is the primary purpose of Infrastructure as Code (IaC)?

To automate the configuration and provisioning of infrastructure

58
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What is the primary difference between SDN and traditional networking?

SDN separates the control and data planes

59
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What is an overlay network?

A virtual network built on top of existing physical network infrastructure

60
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What is the main purpose of Software-Defined WAN (SD-WAN)?

To enhance connectivity and streamline network efficiency between branch offices, datacenters, and cloud services

61
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Which of the following is NOT a core principle of Zero Trust Architecture?

Trust All Internal Users

62
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In a Zero Trust Architecture, what does 'Least Privilege Access' mean?

Users and devices have only the access they need, and no more

63
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What is the main function of a Cloud Access Security Broker (CASB) in a Secure Service Edge (SSE)?

To manage security policies, scan for malware, monitor activity, and prevent data exfiltration