class study mr

The body coil is an example of what type of coil?
A. Surface/Local coil
B. Parallel imaging coil
C. Volume coil
D. Phased array coil

volume Coil

Which type of coil allows the signal from the receiver of each coil to combine to form one image?
A. Surface/Local coil
B. Volume Coil
C. Parallel imaging coil
D. Phase array coil

Phase array coil

Which type of coil is used to image structures near the skin surface?
A. Phased array coil
B. Parallel imaging coil
C. Volume Coil
D. Surface/Local coil

Surface/Local Coil

Which type of coil uses the latest available technology to combine signal from multiple coils and simultaneously reduce scan time?
A. Surface/Local coil
B. Volume Coil
C. Parallel imaging coil
D. Phased array coil

Parallel Imaging Coil

When positioning the coil for scanning a patient, the technologist should:
A. Ensure the coil is plugged in properly and that the correct connector box is used.
B. Ensure that the coil has freedom to move as needed for the exam.
C. Ensure the coil is touching the anatomy to be imaged.
D. Ensure that the receiving surface of the coil is perpendicular to the Z axis of the magnet.

Ensure the coil is plugged in properly and that the correct connector box is used

Head normal mode limit

38 Celsius or 3.2 W/kg averaged over head mass

Torso normal mode limit

39 Celsius or 10 W/kg over any 10g

Extremities normal mode limit

40 Celsius of 10 W/kg over any 10g

The abbreviation MRA stands for:

MR Angiography

The abbreviation SAR stands for:

Specific Energy Absorption Rate

Which of the following patient injuries can be caused by improper placement of cardiac leads?
A. Patient burns
B. Temporary hearing loss
C. Short term memory loss
D. All of the above

Patient burns

Thorough patient prep should include which of the following?:
A. Proper Patient screening
B. Complete patient medical history
C. Adequate patient education
D. All of the above

All of the above

Gradient noise associated with high magnetic fields requires that patients use:

Earplugs

All claustrophobic patients that are scheduled for MRI examinations should be:

Handled delicately so as not to compound their anxiety

Which of the following is NOT a consideration of image quality?
A. Patient throughput
B. Scan Time
C. Contrast to noise ratio
D. Signal to noise ratio

Patient throughput

MRI is based on signal received from the patient. The signal is measured by the:
A. Strength of the magnet
B. Fluctuation temps within the magnet
C. Voltage induced in the receiver coil
D. Constant value received in the coil from the area under examination

Voltage induced in the receiver coil

The background electrical noise of the MRI system and the introduction of a patient into the MRI scanner combine to create:

A. Increased signal (SNR)

B. Increased field strength

C. Short scan times

D. Increased noise

Increased Noise Signal to noise is a ratio (SNR)

SNR will be decreased with all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Thin slices
B. Short NEX/NSA
C. Large FOV
D. Wide receive bandwith

Large FOV

The difference in SNR between 2 adjacent areas is known as:

contrast to noise

The ability to distinguish between two points as separate and distinct entities is known as:

A. Contrast to noise

B. Spatial resolution

C. Magnetization transfer

D. Signal to noise

B. Spatial resolution

Image contrast between pathology and normal tissue may be increased by all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Use of contrast media
B. Use of T2 weighted sequences
C. Use of T1 weighted sequences
D. Use of chemical pre-saturation

Use of T1 weighted sequence

Spatial resolution may be increased with the use of:
A. thin slices
B. fine matrices
C. small FOV
D. all of the above

D. All of the above

Scan time will be increased by using:
A. a coarse matrix
b. thick slices
c. the lowest NEX possible
d. a long TR

D. A long TR

Spin echo (SE) sequences are the most commonly used pulse sequences because:
A. They are always the fastest available scans
B. They are useful for visualization of blood dynamics
C. They produce optimum SRN and CRN

C. They produce optimum SRN and CRN

To achieve a T1 weighted image using a spin echo pulse sequence, the technologist should choose:

Short TE (minimum-20ms)
Short TR (300-600ms)

A spin echo (SE) exam is identified by its use of:
A. A variable excitation pulse followed by variable refocusing pulses
B. a 90 degree excitation pulse followed by one or more 180 degree refocusing pulses
C. a 90 degree excitation pulse followed by one or more gradient reversals
D. A variable excitation pulse followed by one or more gradient reversals

a 90 degree excitation pulse followed by one or more 180 degree refocusing pulses

The number of 180 degree rephrasing (refocusing) pulses is known as the:
A. Flip angle
B. Echo train length (ETL)
C. Receive bandwith
D. Number of excitations (NEX)

echo train length (ETL)

To correct for image blurring that may be associated with fast spin echo (FSE), a technologist may need to:

reduce the echo train length (ETL)

The pulse sequence that begins with a 180 degree pulse is known as a:
A. Inversion Recovery (IR)
B. Fast spin echo (FSE)
C. Gradient recalled echo (GRE)
D. Steady state free precession (SSFP)

inversion recovery (IR)

A STIR pulse sequence is useful because it reduces or eliminates signal from:
A. Muscle
B. Fat
C. CSF
D. Water

fat

A pulse sequence that uses a variable flip angle followed by gradient rephrasing is known as:
A. Gradient echo
B. Echo planar imaging
C. Spin echo
D. Inversion recovery

gradient echo

If a radiologist asks for a T2* exam, he/she wants a:
A. short TAU inversion recovery
B. fast spin echo
C. coherent or balanced gradient echo
D. spin echo

coherent or balanced gradient echo

Cardiac gating uses cardiac leads to ensure that the MRI signal is obtained:
A. at pre-determined timed intervals
B. at different phases of the cardiac cycle
C. at the same phase of the cardiac cycle

at the same phase of the cardiac cycle

The textbook suggests placing the white ECG lead:

in the midline on the superior aspect of the sternum

Signals of a good ECG trace include all of the following EXCEPT:
A. A regular rate- the PQRST complexes are spaced evenly apart
B. the R wave is significantly larger than the T wave
C. the P wave is significantly higher than the T wave
D. the PQRST complex has good amplitude

the P wave is significantly higher than the T wave

Introduction of the patient into the bore of the magnet may cause the following abnormality on trace images:
A. elevation of the T wave
B. reduction of the R wave
C. elevation of the P wave
D. widening of the QRS complex

elevation of the T wave

Regarding coil safety, the technologist should perform all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Tape the cables and pads to the side of the table
B. Place foam pads between the cables and the patient's chest
C. Ensure that the cables do not touch the bore when the patient is inside the magnet
D. Loop cables into coils to reduce excess cables outside the bore of the magnet

Loop cables into coils to reduce excess cables outside the bore of the magnet

Attaching a photo sensor to a finger or toe to detect the increase in blood volume in the capillary bed during systole is known as:
A. ECG Gating
B. Peripheral gating
C. cine imaging
D. respiratory compensation

peripheral gating

Cardiac gating requires a modification of the normal TR period. The TR period during cardiac gating is measured by the:
A. P wave to T interval
B. R wave to R wave interval
C. QRS to QRS complex interval
D. S wave to T wave interval

R wave to R wave interval

Which of the following is NOT a respiratory compensation technique?
A. peripheral gating
B. Navigators
C. Breath hold
D. Respiratory Gating

peripheral gating

Correct positioning of the respiratory bellows should be:
A. parallel to the iliac crests and positioned over the diaphragm
B. At an angle to catch both thoracic and abdominal movements during respiration
C. At an angle to catch respiratory movements in the abdomen and pelvis
D. Parallel to the iliac crests and positioned 1 inch superior to the umbilicus

at an angle to catch both thoracic and abdominal movements during respiration

In cine imaging, gradient moment nulling (GMN) may result in:
A. Decreased spatial resolution
B. increased flow artifacts
C. increased contrast to noise ration
D. decreased scan time

increased contrast to noise ratio

The most common positive contrast agent used in MRI is:

gadolinium

What is the effect on protons following the introduction of positive MRI contrast media?
A. water molecules spin faster
B. fat molecules spin faster
C. T1 and T2 relaxation times are reduced
D. The contrast media absorbs RF, allowing contrast to appear bright on the final image

T1 and T2 relaxation times are reduced

Positive contrast agents are most commonly used with what type of image weighting?
A. T1 contrast weighting
B. Neither T1 nor T2 contrast weighting
C. T2 contrast weighting
D. Both T1 and T2 contrast weighting

T1 contrast weighting

Gadolinium in its natural form is toxic to the body, so manufacturers combine it with ______________ to allow its expulsion from the body.

chelates

Which of the following is NOT a positive contrast agent?
A. Hyperpolarized helium
B. Iron oxide
C. Manganese
D. Gadolinium

iron oxide

Which of the following is NOT a negative contrast agent?
A. Air
B. Iron oxide
C. Gadolinium
D. Blueberry juice

gadolinium

According to the text, negative contrast agents are most often used to image:
A. Abdomen
B. extremities
C. brain
D. spine

abdomen

When performing MRI scans of the heart or vessels, the most effective contrast media choices are considered:
A. positive contrast agents
B. negative contrast agents
C. blood pool agents
D. All of the above

blood pool agents

Intravascular agents are unique in that they bind with:
A. hemoglobin
B. CSF
C. albumin
D. chelates

albumin

A sagittal image of the brain should include:
A. From the vermis to the vertex
B. from the foramen magnum to the top of the head
C. from the fourth ventricle to the top of the head
D. from the body of the mandible to the top of the corpus callosum

from the foramen magnum to the top of the head

Axial slices should be aligned:
A. Perpendicular to the anterior-posterior commissure axis
B. Parallel to the pons and medulla oblongata
C. Parallel to the tentorium cerebelli
D. Parallel to the anterior-posterior commissure axis

parallel to the anterior-posterior commissure axis

All head exams typically find the patient positioned
A. Supine, feet first, with the head in a flex coil
B. Supine, head first, with the head in the head coil
C. Prone, head first, with the head in the head coil
D. Prone, feet first, with the head in a flex coil

supine, head first, with the head in the head coil

The pulse sequence listed as especially useful for imaging the pediatric brain is:
A. Axial/oblique FSE T2
B. Sagittal SE T1
C. Axial/Oblique IR T1
D. Axial/Oblique FLAIR

Axial/oblique IR T1

FLAIR sequences are useful for their:
A. Increased signal from CSF
B. Suppression of signal from fat
C. Suppression of signal from CSF
D. Increased signal from fat

suppression of signal from CSF

Most tumor protocols require technologists to scan:

before and after contrast media administration

B-values are associated with what type of scan?
A. Fast spin echo (FSE)
B. echo planar imaging (EPI)
C. Gradient recalled echo (GRE)
D. Diffusion weighted imaging (DWI)

diffusion weighted imaging (DWI)

What is the typical b-value for imaging the brain?
A. 0
B. 500
C. 1500
D. 1000

1000

The most common pulse sequence utilized for acquiring proton density (PD) or T2 weighted images is a:
A. Fast spin echo (FSE)
B. FLAIR
C. spin echo (SE)
D. gradient recalled echo (GRE)

fast spin echo (FSE)

If a haemorrhagic lesion is suspected, what type of pulse sequence may be required?
A. Inversion recovery
B. Spin echo
C. Gradient echo (GRE)

gradient echo (GRE)

For the cervical spine, axial slices are prescribed:
A. with no angle
B. angled so they are perpendicular to the disc space
C. angled so they are parallel to the disc space
D. angled so they are parallel to the spinal cord

angled so they are parallel to the disc space

Sagittal images of the cervical spine should include:
A. the area from the base of the skull to the second thoracic vertebra
B. C1-T1
C. C2-C7
D. the area from the base of the skill to the 6th thoracic vertebra

the area from the base of the skull to the second thoracic vertebra

Based on the images found in your textbook, CSF on a T1 weighted image appears:
A. hyperintense to the spinal cord (bright)
B. isointense to the spinal cored (same)
C. hypointense to the spinal cord (dark)

hypointense to the spinal cord (dark)

Based on the images found in your text, a sagittal T2 weighted image shows CSF to be:
A. hyperintense to the spinal cord (bright)
B. isointense to the spinal cord (same)
D. hypointense to the spinal cord (dark)

hyperintense to the spinal cord (bright)

If bright CSF is desired on an axial image of the spine, then the technologist should choose:
A. FLAIR
B. spoiled gradient echo
C. T1 weighted FSE
D. Coherant gradient echo

coherent gradient echo

The most common and troublesome artifact in the cervical spine is the:
A. flow motion from CSF
B. arbitrary patient motion
C. swallowing motion
D. respiratory motion

flow motion from CSF

Coronal and sagittal slices of the thoracic spine should include anatomy from:
A. C6-the conus
B. C6-cauda equine
C. T1 through the cauda equine
D. C7- the conus

C7 through the conus

To correct for aliasing in the thoracic spine, the technologist should:
A. increase the FOV
B. decrease slice thickness
C. decrease the scan time
D. increase the NEX

increase the FOV

When imaging the lumbar spine, the technologist should include anatomy from:
A. the conus to the coccyx
B. the conus to the sacrum
C. the cauda equina to the sacrum
D. the cauda equina to the coccyx

the conus to the sacrum

The optimal imaging window for the evaluation of breast cancer is:

approximately 10 days post menses

How many hours should the patient wait prior to receiving a second dose of gadolinium (example: repeat exam)?

24 hours

Which of the following is NOT an obvious artifact when performing MRI of the chest?
A. respiratory motion
B. flow motion
C. cardiac motion
D. peristalsis

peristalsis

To improve image quality when scanning the chest, technologists should:
A. use a fine matrix
B. increase the slice gap
C. use a symmetrical FOV
D. use multiple NEX/NSA

use multiple NEX/NSA

Motion artifact will always occur along the:
A. slice select gradient
B. cannot be predicted
C. frequency encoding axis
D. phase encoding axis

phase encoding axis

When imaging the chest, technologists will reduce artifact from the aorta and IVC by applying spatial presaturation pulses:
A. superior and inferior to the FOV
B. across the heart
C. inferior to the chest
D. to the right and left of the FOV

superior and inferior to the FOV

Gradient moment nulling has the following effects on the MR image:

increases the minimum TE
reduces flow artifact
may be useful if bright blood is desired on GRE sequences

When prescribing slices for a four chamber view of the heart, the technologist should:
A. align parallel to the mitral valve
B. align parallel to the intraventricular septum
C. align perpendicular from the inferior border of the heart to the superior aspect of the arch of the aorta
D. align through the apex of the left ventricle and mitral valve

align through the apex of the left ventricle and mitral valve

Thymus imaging is generally acquired on:

pediatric patients

For brachial plexus imaging, axial slices are generally prescribed from:
A. the arch of the aorta to the third cervical vertebra
B. the arch of the aorta to the seventh cervical vertebra
C. the apex of the lungs to the base of the skill

the arch of the aorta to the third cervical vertebra

Axial slices of the liver should be prescribed:
A. from the ASIS to the arch of the aorta
B. from the pubis symphysis to the diaphragm
C. from the iliac crest to the arch of the aorta
D. from the inferior margin of the liver to the diaphragm

from the inferior margin of the liver to the diaphragm

For LIVER imaging, delayed scans after contrast enhancement are sometimes necessary to evaluate:
A. visualization of arterial and venous phases
B. enhancement of the kidneys
C. visualization of the gallbladder
D. enhancement and filling of the bladder

visualization of arterial and venous phases

For a MRCP, long TR and TE times serve to:
A. nullify the signal from all tissues except those with long T2 times
B. nullify the signal from all tissues except those with long T1 times
C. enhance the tissue from all tissues and vessels
D. enhance the signal from all tissues

nullify the signal from all tissues except those with long T2 times

The optimum TR for T1 weighted imaging of the liver is:
A. less than 400 ms
B. 400-800 ms
C. 1000-14000 ms
D. more than 2000 ms

less than 400 ms

As TR is decreased:
A. SNR is increased
B. available slices per acquisition are decreased
C. slice thickness is increased
D. FOV is decreased

available slices per acquisition are decreased

When scanning the kidneys, axial slices are prescribed from:
A. the inferior margin of the liver to the diaphragm
B. the iliac creast to the diaphragm
C. the inferior margin of the stomach to the arch of the aorta
D. the inferior margin of the kidneys to the superior aspect of the adrenals

the inferior margin of the kidneys to the superior aspect of the adrenals

Use of parallel imaging scan techniques will:
A. decrease scan time
B. have no affect on scan time
C. increase scan time

decrease scan time

What type of artifact is commonly seen around the kidneys, especially at high field strengths?
A. magic angle
B. truncation
C. peristalsis
D. chemical shift

chemical shift

To reduce peristalsis when scanning the pancreas:
A. bellows may be used
B. antispasmodic agents may be given
C. ECG gating may be used
D. pre-saturation pulses should be placed on the pancreas.

antispasmodic agents may be given

For contrast enhanced MRA studies, mid-term acquisitions demonstrate:
A. capillary phase
B. arterial phase
C. venous phase

capillary phase

Common indications for scanning of the male pelvis include all of the following EXCEPT:
A. infertility
B.cervical lesions
C. carcinoma
D.prostatic lesions

cervical lesions

The most common positioning for MRI scans of the pelvis require the patient be placed:

supine

If a local rectal coil is used, then it should be inserted:
A. after the localizer but before the exam sequences
B. after non-contrast images but before contrast images
C. it does not matter
D. prior to the start of the exam

prior to the start of the exam

(Select ALL that apply.) Which of the following sequences will BEST demonstrate female ovaries? Consider that both ovaries should be seen on the same image.
A. axial slices
B. sagittal slices
C. coronal slices

AXIAL AND CORONAL SLICES

Prostate imaging usually requires which of the following?
A. large FOV
B. thick slices
C. use of low resolution imaging
D. use of a rectal coil

use of rectal coil

To obtain sagittal images of the pelvis, the technologist should prescribe scans from:
A. the coccyx posteriorly to the anterior aspect of the pubis symphysis
B. from the pubic symphysis to the iliac crest
C. the left to the right pelvic side walls
D. the left greater trochanter to the right greater trochanter

the left to the right pelvic side walls

An axial image, that demonstrates a bright or hyperintense bladder, is mostly likely which of the following?
A. T1 weighted
B. T2 weighted
C. incoherent (spoiled) GRE

T2 weighted

(Select ALL that apply.) Fine matrix sizes in conjunction with short scan times can be acquired in the pelvis by using:
fast spin echo (FSE)
local/phased array/muli-array coils
rectangular FOV
surface coils
conventional spin echo (SE)
isotropic (square) FOV

fast spin echo (FSE)
local/phased array/muli-array coils
rectangular FOV

Gradient moment nulling (GMN) helps to reduce flow (motion) artifact, but is least beneficial during:
A. T2 weighted sequences
B. T1 weighted sequences
C. Gradient recalled echo (GRE) sequences

T1 weighted sequences

According to the authors of your textbook, when scanning the shoulder, the hand should be positioned so that the:
A. thumb is pointing up (neutral position)
B. thumb is pointing laterally (external rotation)
C. it does not matter
D. thumb is pointing down (internal rotation)

thumb is pointing up (neutral position)