MICRO Exam 3

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234 Terms

1
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What are the 3 cell wall blockers that are effective against gram-pos cocci & treponema pallidum

amoxicillin, ampicillin, carbenicillin

2
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(antifungal) binds ergosterol of fungal PM; binding causes leakage of monovalent cations

amphotericin B

3
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cell wall blocker; most broad spectrum; must be given parenterally

cephalosporin

4
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(antimalarial); blocks P. falciparum’s ability to hydrolyze hemoglobin, parasite accumulates cytotoxic levels of heme group

chloroquine

5
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cell wall blocker; penicillinase-resistant penicillin

cloxacillin

6
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plasma membrane blocker; good versus gram-pos microbes & biofilms

daptomycin

7
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blocks ribosomal elongation; broad spectrum; low toxicity

erythromycin

8
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antifungal; blocks sterol anabolism

fluconazole

9
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inhibition of virion entry; binds to GP41 and blocks GP41 function

fuzeon

10
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narrow spectrum; blocks mycolic acid formation in mycobacteria

isoniazid

11
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antihelminth; misregulation of glutamate-gated chloride channels

ivermectin

12
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2 cell wall blockers that are penicillinase resistant

methicillin, nafcillin

13
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cell wall blocker (delaney’s worst enemy)

penicillin

14
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inhibits ribosomal protein synthesis by blocking 23s peptidyl transferase activity (impetigo)

pleuromutilin

15
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antimalarial; blocks P. falciparum ability to hydrolyze hemoglobin

quinone

16
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transcription/ mRNA synthesis blocks anti-beta subunit

rifampin

17
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inhibition of viral assembly and of neurominidase (needed for virion release)

tamiflu

18
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blocks charged tRNAs (protein synthesis)

tetracycline

19
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sulfa drug, blocks prokaryotic PABA; folate anabolism (UTI)

trimethoprim

20
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Tetracycline is considered the most _______ antibiotic

broad

21
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Isoniazid is considered the most _______ antibiotic

narrow

22
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________ interferes with linking enzymes; Cross-bridges and ____ subunits remain attached to their neighbors. The cell ______ from osmotic pressure because the integrity of peptidoglycan is not maintained.

penicillin, NAM, bursts

23
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__________ will attack the NAG NAM

lysozyme

24
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Secreted bacterial proteins, usually enzymatic, usually from gram-pos microbes

exotoxins

25
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kill by lysis

membrane-disrupting exotoxins

26
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A-B exotoxins : A= ______ _____ and B= _________

active site, binding

27
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affects neuronal transmission

neurotoxin

28
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affects intestinal cells

enterotoxin

29
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can affect all cells

cytotoxin

30
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nonspecific overstimulation of host immune system in multi-organ failure

superantigens

31
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Membrane disrupting exotoxin = _______________ ____________

clostridium perfringens

32
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C. perfringens: Produces __________ with phospholipase activity; _______________ lyses host cells; Results in _______ tissue

exotoxins, phospholipase, necrotic

33
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2 examples of species that use translation-blocking A-B exotoxins are ____________________ diphtheriae and shigella ______________

corynebacterium, dysenteriae

34
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C. diphtheriae: Exotoxin gene= ____; exotoxins= ADP-__________; Modifies eukaryotic __-_ proteins (needed for translation elongation); Results in ______ protein synthesis

Tox, ribosylases, EF-2, halted

35
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S. dysenteriae: Exotoxin gene= _____; STX = A-B exotoxin with ___________ activity; Shiga toxin removes a specific “___” nitrogenous base from the 28S rRNA (cannot form peptide bonds); Results in ______ protein synthesis

Stx, depurinase, A, halted

36
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2 examples of species that use A-B exotoxins that inhibit nerve impulses are clostridium ___________ and clostridium ________

botulinum, tetani

37
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C. botulinum: A-B exotoxin= ________ (neurotoxin); Botulin operates at the ________________ junction; AcH is essential for muscle ____________; Botulin inhibits _______-mediated exocytosis of AC+ TVs; Results in ________ paralysis; Death by failure ________

botulin, neuromuscular, contraction, SNARE, flaccid, inhale

38
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C. tetani: A-B exotoxin= _____________ (neurotoxin); Glycine & GABA neurotransmitters are essential for muscle ___________; Results in ________ paralysis; Death by failure to ________

tetanospasmin, relaxation, spasmic, exhale

39
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2 examples of species that use A-B exotoxins as enterotoxins are vibrio __________ and staphylococcus _______

cholerae, aureus

40
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Tetanospasmin inhibits _______________-mediated exocytosis of ______ and glycine

synaptobrevin, GABA

41
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V. cholerae: A-B exotoxin= ____; CTX operates on _____________; CTX has ADP-ribosylase activity; CTX modifies eukaryotic adenylate _______; Results in massive ______ efflux; Omosis ensues, enterocytes ___________

CTX, enterocytes, cyclase, solute, plasmolyze

42
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Exotoxin forms ______ in the membrane, causing the cytoplasmic contents to ______ and water to ________ causing host cell to lysis.

pore, efflux, influx

43
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Numerous activated T helper cell will hyper-activate the immune system in a non-specific fashion, patient immune system may undergo anaphylaxis

superantigen

44
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Endotoxin (lipid ___) —> ___________ fever response

A, pyrogenic

45
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Endotoxin: __________ eats microbe —> microbe is digested releasing __________ —> endotoxins induce macrophage release of _________ —> cytokines enter _____________ —> cytokines travel to ________________ —> cytokines induce hypothalamus to produce _____________ which induce fever

macrophage, endotoxins, cytokines, bloodstream, hypothalamus, prostaglandins

46
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Lipid A misregulates blood _____ leading to multiple organ _______

clots, failure

47
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Lipid portions of the LPS found on the ______ membrane of gram-___________ microbes

outer, negative

48
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2 ways that endotoxin might kill a human host

pyrogenic fever response, misregulated blood clots

49
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Daptomycin and polymyxin attack plasma ___________ of bacteria

membrane

50
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Clostridium perfringens that makes exotoxin ______, can obliterate ___________ heads from tails and ______ the plasma membrane.

lipase, phosphate, melts

51
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Bacterial vaginosis is caused by __________ species

candida

52
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____________ species keeps candida growth in check, __________ can wipe out all the lactobacillus causing candida overgrowth.

lactobacillus, antibiotics

53
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____________ is produced by staphylococcus lugduninsiensis

lugdunin

54
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S. luguninsiensis is a bacteriocin that inhibits ________

MRSA

55
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Toxins produced by the bacteria that kill closely related species

bacteriocin

56
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___________ is produced by eleftheriae tarrae

teixbactin

57
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E. terrae produces an __________ rather than inhibiting another molecule.

antibiotic

58
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___________ acid (CA) is a beta-lactamase inhibitor

clavulanic

59
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Bacteria with a beta-lactamase will cause beta-lactam _____ on -cillin drugs to be hydrolyzed. Clavulanic acid (CA) _________ beta-lactamase and protects the -cillin drugs from being broken down and allows them to _____ bacteria they would not have been able to without it.

rings, inhibits, kill

60
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Beta-lactamase is another name for _______________, since CA inhibits it will have no effect on penicillinase-resistant penicillins.

penicillinase

61
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_____________, ____________, and cloxacillin all have beta-lactam rings but are unaffected by beta-lactamases because they are penicillinase __________.

methicillin, nafcillin, resistent

62
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A non -cillin antibiotic with a beta-lactam ring is ________________ species

cephalosporium

63
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What antibiotics would you use for pulmonary tubercles? (4)

isoniazid, tobramycin, polymyxin, streptomycin

64
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Antibiotics NOT useful against ____________ are anything to treat gram-pos microbes or cell wall blockers

mycoplasmas

65
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What antibiotic would you use for pulmonary invasive aspergillosis? (2)

antifungal drugs, amphotericin B

66
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High eosinophils = ___________ infection

helminth

67
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High serum IgE antibody indicates ________ infection

parasite

68
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Blocking of viral entry = __________ —> influenza uses viral ____________ protein to adhere to host glycoproteins decorated with _____ acid residues. DAS181 is an enzyme that cleaves sialic acids, blocking _________.

DAS181, hemagglutinin, sialic, adhesion

69
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Viral genome assembly= __________, saquinavir, and __________ are ____ protease inhibitors.

indinavir, ritonavir, HIV

70
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__________ inhibits the influenza M2 ion channel protein necessary for viral ________.

amantadine, assembly

71
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Virion release = _______ and relenza inhibit influenza _________________

tamiflu, neurominindase

72
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Neurominindase (N) is needed for influenza virion release as N ________ H::sialic acid events as nascent virion buds from host plasma membrane

cleaves

73
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____________ antibiotic resistance mechanism includes a beta-lactam ring

catalytic

74
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Shape change = antibiotic can no longer _____ and ______________ will form

bind, tetrapeptide

75
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___-_________ antibiotic resistance mechanism includes MDR effluxes which constantly pumps antibiotic but can only work if respiratory chain is going.

non-catalytic

76
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Ribosome antibiotics which can acquire _____ mutations

gene

77
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C. sporogenes makes _____ for humans and gets nutrients in return

IPA

78
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E. coli makes ________ ___ for human and gets nutrients in return

vitamin k

79
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2 organisms that are mutualistic in the large intestines of synapsids

c. sporogenes, e. coli

80
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Ancestral tetrapod and all mammals became _________ and all birds and reptiles become ________

synapsids, diapids

81
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E. coli is ________ and salmonella/shigella is _______

synapsid, diapsid

82
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N. gonorrhea, E. coli, Shigella species, and P. aeruginosa use _________ to adhere to their targets

fimbriae

83
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S. mutans and S. sobrinus use glycocalyx _______ layer

slime

84
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S. pyogenes uses gycocalyx _________ and _____________ acid

capsule, lipoteichoic

85
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HIV uses _______ spike

GP120

86
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The deliberate inoculation of an uninfected person with smallpox material

variolation

87
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Are altered forms of exotoxins secreted by bacteria whose toxicity is weakened

toxoids

88
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Blood poisoning by toxins from a local bacterial infection

toxemia

89
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Flaccid paralysis = muscles cannot ________

contract

90
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Spasmis paralysis = muscles cannot _______

relax

91
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Which stage of pathogenesis? No signs or symptoms

incubation period

92
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Which stage of pathogenesis? Mild signs or symptoms

prodromal period

93
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Which stage of pathogenesis? Most severe signs and symptoms

period of illness

94
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Which stage of pathogenesis? Signs and symptoms are subsiding

period of decline

95
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Which stage of pathogenesis? Body returns to prediseased state

convalescence

96
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Recuperating patients without symptoms; they continue to shed viable microbes and convey the infection to others

convalescent carriers

97
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Individuals who shelter the infectious agent for a long period after recovery because of the latency of the infectious agent (TB, Typhoid fever)

chronic carriers

98
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Medical and dental personnel who must handle patient materials that are heavily contaminated with patient secretions and blood risk picking up pathogens mechanically and accidentally transferring them to other patients

passive carriers

99
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Infections acquired during the process of receiving healthcare that was not present during the time of admission

nosocomial

100
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Inanimate object that harbors and transmits pathogens

fomites