chapter 20 and 21

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357 Terms

1
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Which of the following is NOT a component of the lymphatic system?

venae cavae

2
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What is the primary function of the lymphatic system?

Defending the body against environmental hazards and internal threats.

3
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In the lymphatic system, what are lymphocytes most important for?

fighting infection

4
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Where are lymphocytes NOT produced and stored?

the brain

5
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Compared to blood capillaries, how do lymph capillaries differ?

lymph capillaries are not smaller in diameter

6
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Where are lymphatic vessels NOT located?

CNS

7
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What do lymphatic vessels commonly occur in association with?

blood vessels

8
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Which statement regarding lymph is false?

Lacteals are prominent lymphatic vessels in the respiratory system.

9
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How does most of the lymph return to the venous circulation?

thoracic duct

10
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What region does the thoracic duct NOT drain lymph from?

right breast

11
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What merges to form the right lymphatic duct?

the right jugular, right subclavian, and right bronchomediastinal trunks

12
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From what expanded chamber does the thoracic duct originate?

cisterna chyli

13
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Lymph draining from your right shoulder flows into which duct?

the right lymphatic duct

14
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Which of the following is NOT true of lymphocytes?

they are granulocytes

15
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What response do lymphocytes have to antigens?

respond to antigens

16
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Where does lymphocyte production NOT occur?

the liver

17
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T is to thymus-dependent as B is to what?

bone marrow-derived

18
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What is a substance that provokes an immune response called?

antigen

19
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Which statement about lymph flow in a node is false?

The afferent lymphatic vessel enters at the hilum.

20
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What are large lymphoid nodules located in the walls of the pharynx?

Tonsils

21
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What are clusters of lymphoid nodules deep to the epithelial lining of the small intestine?

Peyer's patches

22
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What do lymph nodes NOT do?

remove excess nutrients from the lymph

23
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How do lymphoid organs differ from lymphoid tissues?

They are surrounded by a fibrous capsule and lymphoid tissues are not.

24
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What does the medullary sinus of a lymph node contain?

B lymphocytes and plasma cells.

25
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Which cell dominates the deep cortical region of a lymph node?

T helper cell

26
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What is the range in diameter of lymph nodes?

1 mm to 25 mm

27
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What type of tissues are dominated by lymphocytes?

Lymphoid tissues

28
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What structure is labeled "1" in Figure 20-1?

Efferent lymphatic

29
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What is the dominant cell type in the area labeled "2" in Figure 20-1?

B cells

30
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What structure is labeled "3" in Figure 20-1?

Afferent lymphatic

31
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What structures are labeled "4" in Figure 20-1?

Trabeculae

32
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What region is labeled "5" in Figure 20-1?

Germinal center

33
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Where are dividing lymphocytes found in Figure 20-1?

Area 5

34
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What does it indicate when lymph glands in the neck are swollen during a sore throat?

the affected lymph glands contain an increased number of lymphocytes

35
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Which of the following is NOT true of the thymus gland?

activates B cells

36
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Where do stem cells that will form T cells develop?

bone marrow

37
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If the thymus shrank and stopped functioning properly, what would immediately decrease in number?

T cells

38
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What complementary hormones does the thymus produce?

thymosins

39
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What is the process called when the thymus gradually shrinks and becomes more fibrous after puberty?

involution

40
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What are the partitions that divide the lobules of the thymus called?

septa

41
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What are the areas of the spleen that contain large aggregations of lymphocytes called?

white pulp

42
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Where is the largest single collection of lymphoid tissue in the adult body located?

spleen

43
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What populates the white pulp of the spleen?

lymphocytes

44
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Which class of leukocytes is particularly abundant in the red pulp of the spleen?

free and fixed macrophages

45
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Which of the following is NOT included in the body's nonspecific defenses?

B and T cells

46
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Which of the following is NOT a nonspecific defense?

antibodies

47
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Each of the following is a physical barrier to infection EXCEPT

complement

48
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What are examples of physical barriers against pathogens?

epidermal layers

49
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What is the first line of cellular defense against pathogens?

phagocytes

50
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What are various types of macrophages derived from?

monocytes

51
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What is the movement of phagocytes through the capillary wall called?

diapedesis

52
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What is the attraction or repulsion of certain cells to chemicals in their environment called?

chemotaxis

53
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Which cells perform immunological surveillance?

NK cells

54
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What is perforin?

a protein produced by NK cells

55
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Interferons are released by some macrophages and lymphocytes, but also by cells carrying what pathogen?

viruses

56
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The effects of activating the complement system include all of the following EXCEPT

inhibition of the immune response

57
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The classic pathway of complement activation begins when the complement protein binds to what?

an antibody attached to an antigen

58
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How many proteins does plasma contain that form the complement system?

more than 30

59
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What is the process by which the surface of a microorganism is covered with antibodies and complement, rendering it more likely to be phagocytized called?

opsonization

60
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Inflammation produces all of the following localized effects EXCEPT

decreased blood flow

61
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Fever is the maintenance of body temperature higher than

either 37.2°C or 99°F

62
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An inflammatory response is triggered when

mast cells release histamine and heparin

63
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In response to tissue damage and infection, circulating proteins called pyrogens do what?

produce a fever

64
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Histamine increases blood flow and vascular permeability. This would account for all of the changes that occur during inflammation EXCEPT

chemotaxis of phagocytes

65
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A sample of John's blood shows a high level of pyrogens. What would this indicate?

is running a fever

66
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Characteristics of specific defenses include all of the following EXCEPT

intrinsic

67
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Defense of the body against a particular pathogen is provided by

specific immunity

68
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Immunity that is genetically determined and present at birth is called

innate

69
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Immunity that results from exposure to an antigen in the environment is called __ immunity.

naturally acquired active

70
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Immunity that results from antibodies that pass the placenta from mother to fetus is called __ immunity.

naturally acquired passive

71
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In passive immunity

the body receives antibodies produced by other humans or the body receives antibodies produced by an animal.

72
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In an experimental situation, a rabbit is exposed to a viral antigen to which it makes antibodies. These antibodies are then purified and injected into a human with the same viral disease. This is an example of

passive immunity

73
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__ exists when the immune system does not respond to a particular antigen.

Tolerance

74
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The role of antigen-presenting cells in immunity is to do all of the following EXCEPT

phagocytosis

75
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Which of the following concerning Class I MHC proteins is FALSE?

bind complement

76
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Class II MHC molecules are found only on which of the following?

lymphocytes and antigen-presenting cells

77
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Before specific defenses are activated, most antigens must

bind to the DNA of the lymphocyte

78
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The cells responsible for antibody-mediated immunity are the

B cells

79
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Adaptive immunity is the result of the actions of

T and B cells

80
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The cells directly responsible for cell-mediated immunity are the

T cells

81
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Lymphocytes that destroy foreign cells or virus-infected cells are

cytotoxic T cells

82
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Regulatory T cells act to

suppress antigens.

83
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Cytotoxic T cells attack target cells by doing what?

activating genes that trigger apoptosis

84
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__ cells provide cell-mediated immunity.

CD8 T

85
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__ cells enable the immune system to respond quickly and robustly if the same antigen is encountered a second time.

Memory

86
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Helper T cells do all of the following except

destroy target cells using perforins

87
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When an antigen is bound to a Class II MHC protein, it can activate a(n)

CD4 T

88
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The cells responsible for producing antibody molecules are

plasma

89
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Cells that help regulate the antibody-mediated immune response are

helper T

90
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B cells are primarily activated by the activities of

helper T cells

91
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T cells release cytokines to stimulate the activation of

B cells

92
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B cells prepare for activation by presenting an antigen bound to Class II MHC proteins in a process called

sensitization

93
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The various classes of immunoglobulins are differentiated on the basis of their

heavy-chain constant segments

94
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Immunoglobulins that are most abundant and are responsible for resistance against many viruses, bacteria, and bacterial toxins are

IgG

95
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Immunoglobulins that attach to and sensitize mast cells and basophils are

IgE

96
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Immunoglobulins that are found on the surface of B cells and may activate antibody production are

IgD

97
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Immunoglobulins, formed of five subunits, which are the first antibodies to be produced in response to infection are

IgM

98
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Immunoglobulins that are primarily found in glandular secretions such as mucus, saliva, and tears are

IgA

99
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During a primary response to antigen exposure, all of the following occur except

neutrophils invade the surrounding areas, releasing chemotactic substances

100
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All of the following are true of the secondary response to antigen exposure except that it

weakens quickly because memory B cells only survive for a year or two