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__________ bonds link the 3’ and 5’ hydroxyl groups of DNA
Phosphodiester
__________ and __________ are DNA purines
Adenine; Guanine
__________ and __________ are DNA pyrimidines
Thymine; Cytosine
DNA helixes are coiled __________ around each other
Clockwise
There are __________ per complete helical turn of DNA
10 nucleotides
__________ bonds hold purines and pyrimidines together
Hydrogen
__________ states that the ratio of A to T and C to G is 1:!
Chargaff’s Rule
Typically, each protein-coding gene has two copies in a human diploid genome. What are the 3 exceptions to this rule?
-Alpha-globulin genes
-Ubiquitin genes
-Histone genes
*All have more genes that code for them
__________ make up the major of DNA and are non-coding and repetitive
Introns
True or False: Repetitive DNA can be in tandem repeats or be interspersed
True; introns are back to back
Tandem repeats (introns) are often called __________ DNA
Satellite
What are the 3 sizes of “satellite” DNA?
-Microsatellites (<1 kb)
-Minisatellites (1-30 kb)
-Macrosatellites (>30 kb)
What is the significance of short tandem repeats?
They can be used for forensic identification of individuals, especially as the repeats on each chromosome differ between each person
__________ helps unwind DNA and separates the strands during replication
DNA helicase
__________ relaxes the supercoiling that happens during unwinding of replication
Topoisomerase
__________ keep DNA strands separated during replication
Single stranded binding proteins
During replication, free nucleotides are brought in by __________ to be hydrogen-bonded to the template strand
DNA polymerase
DNA polymerase only moves from __________ to __________
5’; 3’
__________ forms short RNA sequences on the DNA (primers) during replication so that DNA polymerase knows where to attach
Primase
__________ adds in free nucleotides to bridge gaps between Okazaki fragments
DNA ligase
__________ and __________ are RNA pyrimidines
Uracil; Cytosine
RNA is single stranded, __________, and has __________ polarity
Haploid; Positive
Ribosomal RNAs are synthesized directly on DNA templates in the __________
Nucleolus
Transfer RNAs bind to __________ which are translated into proteins by ribosomes
Messenger RNAs
Due to relaxed base-pairing, some tRNAs can bind to more than one mRNA codon. This is referred to as __________ at the third base position of codons
“Wobble” positioning
During transcription, mRNA is read from __________ to __________
3’; 5’
What molecule reads mRNA and binds to the promoter sequence to start transcription?
RNA polymerase II
mRNA is synthesized during transcription from __________ to __________
5’; 3’
During transcriptional splicing, __________ are removed as they will not code for protein
Introns
Introns are spliced by __________
Endonucleases
At the end of transcription, a 5’ __________ is added to protect mRNA
Methyl-guanylate cap
At the end of transcription, a 3’ __________ is added to protect mRNA
Poly-A tail
After transcription, mRNA diffuses to the __________ and DNA strands reassociate using __________
Cytoplasm; Ligase
There are a total of __________ possible mRNA codons
64
__________ is always the translation start codon
AUG; methionine
What are the 3 stop codons?
-UAA
-UGA
-UAG
During translation, the ribosome moves along mRNA from __________ to __________
5’; 3’
During translation, amino acids are added to the __________ end
3’
Proteins are modified mostly in the __________
Goldi apparatus
What are the 8 types of post-translational modifications?
-Adding disulfide bonds
-Hydroxylation
-Glycosylation
-Proteolytic cleavage
-Phosphorylation
-Acetylation
-Methylation
-Ubiquitination
Adding disulfide bonds to a protein causes…
It to change shape
What is the purpose of post-translational modifications?
To give proteins their three-dimensional structure/tertiary structure
Promoter regions before each gene help bind __________ to the DNA template strand, causing transcription to start
RNA polymerase
A 5’-TATAAA-3’ consensus sequence, called the __________, binds transcription factors
TATA box
The TATA box can bind mRNA transcription __________ or __________
Activators; Repressors
What are the 2 possible consequences of mutations in gene regulatory sequences (such as promoters)?
-No gene produced
-Ectopic gene expression
__________ refers to changes in gene function that occur without changing the actual sequence
Epigenetics
How does methylation impact genes?
Methylation turns genes off
Housekeeping genes are always active, so they are __________
Unmethylated
Tetrogens result in __________ if there is significant exposure
Congenital anomalies
__________ wavelengths induce more mutations; these consist of __________ and __________
Shorter; X-rays; Gamma
__________ are longer wavelengths that can still induce mutations
UV rays
Chemical mutagens affect DNA reassembly, replication, and structure by causing __________
Oxidative stress
What are some examples of dsDNA viruses that integrate into the human genome and are highly mutagenic? (7)
-HPV
-EBV
-HepB
-HepC
-HIV
-HTLV
-HHV8
Point mutations involve a __________
Base substitution
A point mutation __________ involves substituting a purine for another purine or a pyrimidine for another pyrimidine
Transition
A point mutation __________ involves substituting a purine for a pyrimidine or a pyrimidine for a purine
Transversion
__________ point mutations occur if a different amino acid is placed
Missense
__________ point mutations occur if a stop codon is placed, creating a truncated protein
Nonsense
True or False: Most point mutations are spontaneous
True
__________ and __________ can increase the frequency of point mutations
Mutagenic Chemicals; UV light
UV light causes __________ where pyrimidine bases become linked
Pyrimidine dimers
Frame shift mutations consist of what 5 types of mutations?
-Deletions
-Insertions
-Duplications
-Trinucleotide repeat amplifications
-Gene conversions
__________ arise from chromosomal breakage during meiosis or from unequal crossing over
Deletions
Single-gene disorders can arise if too many __________ amplifications occur
Trinucleotide repeat
True or False: Families with trinucleotide repeat amplification mutations all have the same disease severity
False; they have different disease severity due to varying repeat lengths
__________ refers to a genetic disorder becoming more severe in successive generations of a family and/or appearing earlier in life
Genetic anticipation
What are 3 common examples of disorders caused by trinucleotide repeat amplifications?
-Myotonic dystrophy
-Huntington’s disease
-Fragile X syndrome
__________ includes one copy of a gene (an allele) being converted into another one during the repair of a DNA mismatch. This causes the daughter cell to lack one of the original 4 alleles (3:1 ratio instead of 2:2)
Gene conversion
__________ mutations usually result in dominant inheritance where the next generation will also have a mutation
Gain of function
__________ mutations are mutations in a protein that is an integral part of a multi-subunit protein complex. This prevents the whole complex from functioning
Dominant-negative
What is an example of a dominant negative mutation disease?
Marfan Syndrome —> FBN1 gene that encodes fibrillin
Nucleotide excision repair corrects __________ caused by UV radiation
Thymine dimers
Mutations in genes that control nucleotide excision repair pathways lead to increased risk of __________
Premature skin cancers
__________ refers to the double-stranded break repair in which an unbroken strand on another chromosome is used as a template to make a sequence for the broken part
Homologous recombination
True or False: Homologous recombination typically leads to mutations
False—> genes go back to normal
__________ refers to the double-stranded break repair in which to ends of a chromosome are joined together
Non-homologous
Is non-homologous or homologous recombination more accurate?
Homologous—> in non-homologous, some nucleotides can be added or lost leading to mutations
What is the treatment for radiation sickness?
Potassium Iodide pills —> binds thyroid tissue and acts as a shield against radioactive iodine
Chromosomes are composed of histones with __________ basepairs of DNA wrapped around the protein 1.75 times
150
Elementary fibers are formed of nucleosomes with __________ histones
8
Elementary fibers coil to make __________
Chromatin fibers
Chromatids can have either __________ or __________
Euchromatin; Heterochromatin
__________ refers to chromatin that has acetylated histones which allow access of transcription machinery to DNA. These genes are active
Euchromatin
__________ refers to chromatin that has methylated histones associated with transcriptional repression. The DNA is inaccessible by transcription machinery, so the genes are inactive
Heterochromatin
Removal of __________ can allow for genes to be turned on. This is a part of epigenetics
Histone proteins
__________ refers to the methylation of an entire X-chromosome
X-inactivation
__________ refers to methylation of genes in one parental chromosome
Imprinting
DNA __________ turns off certain genes
Methylation
__________ are small RNA sequences (around 20 nucleotides long) that are not translated and have multiple targets
MicroRNA (miRNA)
miRNA bind to regular __________ to inhibit its translation or degrade that particular sequence
mRNA—> bind at complementary sequence
__________ are similar to miRNA in that they result in turning off of a gene by degrading an mRNA sequence, however they have very specific targets
Small interfering RNAs (siRNA)
__________ regulates gene expression by silencing specific mRNA molecules, preventing them from being translated into proteins
RNA Interference (RNAi)
Many human diseases, including cancer, have an __________ etiology. As such, we can use therapies that alter __________ patterns on DNA and chromosomes
Epigenetic; Methylation
What is the easiest and most specific epigenetic treatment to create?
RNAi; we can turn off genes that lead to disease
*First was Onpattro in 2018
Each chromosome is a pair of __________ joined together at the centromere
Sister chromatids
Long arms of chromosomes are lettered __________
q
Short arms of chromosomes are lettered __________
p
__________ refers to chromosomes with a centromere in the middle
Metacentric
__________ refers to a chromosome with a centromere close to one end
Acrocentric