Immunology Final Exam

Attenuated

What type of vaccine is based on organisms that are living?

Killed

What type of vaccine consists of dead organisms, and should have no ability to infect or replicate an infection?

Subunit

What type of vaccine contains materials isolated from disrupted or lysed organisms, virus-like particles, toxoids, and recombinant vaccines (genetic modification)?

Conjugated

What type of vaccines combine different antigens to improve responses, such as with carbohydrate antigens?

Carrier

What type of vaccine contains a genetically modified live virus?

DNA

What type of vaccines contain naked DNA extracted from a pathogen, and the host cell takes up the DNA and makes the proteins of the pathogen?

Memory B and helper T

What types of cells are made by the body if exposed to a non-infectious vaccine such as killed vaccines, subunit vaccines, conjugated vaccines, or DNA vaccines?

False (Should not cause that)

T/F- Non-infectious vaccines such as DNA vaccines, will still cause the production of memory killer T cells.

PC (pneumococcal vaccine)

Which vaccine is non-infectious in nature, but is used to prevent infection of a disease that has at least 13 different strains, and commonly infects infants and elderly?

Rotavirus

What vaccine is an attenuated live vaccine, which is administered to young children in order to prevent an infection of rotavirus?

MMR (rubella vaccine)

Which vaccine is an attenuated vaccine, administered in hopes of preventing the infection of a pregnant female, which can lead to developmental problems with the fetus?

True

T/F- The shingles vaccine (shingrix) contains about 14 times more of the weakened varicella virus than the varicella vaccine for chickenpox.

18

How many H (hemaglutinin) subtypes does the influenza A have?

11

How many N (neuraminidase) subtypes doe influenza A have?

Intranasally

How are live-attenuated cold-adapted vaccines administered?

IPV (inactivated polio vaccine) and Typhoid vaccine

What are two examples of killed vaccines given in class?

HBV, tetanus toxoid, APV (acellular pertussis vaccine)

What are the three examples of subunit vaccines, which characteristically only use part of a pathogen?

HIB

What vaccine is an example of a conjugate vaccine that uses carbohydrate antigens?

SPV (sabin polio vaccine) and MMR

Which vaccines discussed in class are considered live attenuated vaccines?

Carrier, live attenuated

What type of vaccines will present the pathogen microbe protein fragments on MHC I molecules, thus resulting in memory Killer T cell response?

Herd Immunity

What concept means that if enough people in a population are immune, we will break the cycle of transmission, and thus not become infected?

Adjuvant

What is an vaccine additive which helps stimulate the immune system, increasing the immune response to the vaccine?

Aluminum hydroxide

What is the most widely used adjuvant?

Th2

What type of response may be mediated with vaccines that use "alum" (aluminum hydroxide), which may be problematic for some individuals?

Oil-emulsion adjuvants (MF59, AS03)

What type of adjuvants induce a strong response including local cell death, but tend to be reactogenic?

MPL (Monophosphoryl Lipid A)

What type of adjuvant is a TLR agonist and tends to have lower toxicity than oil-emulsion adjuvants?

AS04 (combination adjuvants)

What type of adjuvant uses a combination of multiple adjuvants such as alum and MPL, which even further enhances immune activity, but also increases reactogenicity?

Thimerosal (ethyl mercury)

What vaccine preservative has since been almost entirely removed from vaccines, but may be connected to ASD?

Formaldehyde

What vaccine preservative is often used to inactivate organisms or toxins, and is produced in the body in small amounts?

No

Does the vaccine preservative thimerosal bioaccumulate?

Sepsis

What is a systemic immune response caused by an infection?

Type I

What type of hypersensitivity are allergies?

IgE

What type of antibody is overproduced in response to allergies?

Hypersensitivity

What is the response to innocuous antigens, which results in harm to the host?

Autoimmunity

What is caused by the failure of autoimmune processes?

Hashimoto's thyroiditis

What condition is a result of autoantibodies and sensitized Th1 cells specific for the thyroid being produced, which results in inadequate iodine uptake and a goiter?

Beta cells

What cells of the pancreas are attacked in type I diabetes mellitus by CTLs?

ACh receptors

In myasthenia gravis, autoantibodies bind ______ ________ on motor endplates of muscles and block the signal.

Type V

What type of hypersensitivity may myasthenia gravis be considered?

SLE (systemic lupus erythematosus)

What condition consists of an autoantibody reaction against DNA, histones, and other structures?

Type III

What type of hypersensitivity reaction is rheumatoid arthritis?

IgM binds IgG

In rheumatoid arthritis, antibody-antibody complexes are made when what antibodies bind each other?

Broad spectrum

What type of autoimmune therapy may be of the most risk to immune compromised individuals?

IgM or IgG

What antibodies are overproduced in type II and type III hypersensitivity reactions?

T cells

What type of cells are produced in response to a type IV hypersensitivity?

Type IV

What type of hypersensitivity reaction is delayed, cell mediated, and activated T killer cells?

Type III

What type of hypersensitivity reaction occurs when soluble antibodies and antigens form immune complexes that cause inflammation?

Type II

What type of hypersensitivity reaction occurs within 5-12 hours and causes a cytotoxic response?

Type I

What type of hypersensitivity reaction is immediate and due to massive amounts of IgE binding mast cells or basophils, causing degranulation?

False (second exposure)

T/F- Hypersensitivity reactions occur on the first exposure to antigens.

Antihistamine

What treatment is necessary for a type I hypersensitivity that is in the upper respiratory tract?

Epinephrine or albuterol

What is administered for an individual with a type I hypersensitivity involving the lower respiratory tract?

Type II

What type of hypersensitivity reaction is hemolytic disease of newborns?

Type IV

What type of hypersensitivity response is a poison ivy infection?

T cells

What type of cells is most defective in severe combined immunodeficiency (bubble boy disease)

Congenital

Is SCID congenital or acquired?

TAP

What gene is missing in MHC 1 deficiencies?

CD40L

What is lacking on the Th cells in hyper IgM syndrome, which doesn't allow for an immune response?

Aggamglobulinemia

What congenital condition lacks intracellular signalling molecules, so B cells fail to mature?

LAD (leukocyte adhesion deficiency)

What congenital immunodeficiency results from a defect in intern adhesion molecules?

CD4+ T cell

What type of cell is infected by HIV/AIDS?

<200

In order to be diagnosed as AIDS, CD4+ T cell count must be lower than what?

Carcinoma

What type of non blood cell/solid tumor is most common?

HPV

What virus is linked to cervical cancer?

HepB

What virus is linked to liver cancer?

EBV (Epstein-Barr Virus)

What virus is linked to Burkitt's lymphoma?

Herpes virus

What virus is linked to Kaposi's sarcoma?

HTLV

What virus is linked to leukemia?

False (none of this is true)

T/F- Cancer is typically inherited, and is fairly common at the cellular level.

CTLA-4

What is produced by solid tumor cells that slow the immune response by slowing down T cells?

PD-1

What is produced by solid tumor cells that kills T cells?

TGF-beta and IL-10

What regulatory products are produced by tumor cells which down regulate the immune system?

B7

What is often expressed in high levels in blood cancers?

Blood cancers

What type of cancers are CTLs more effective against?

CAUTION

What is the acronym that is used to describe cancerous changes?

CAR T cells

What type of T cells are used to attack cancer cells?

Physical barriers

Skin, saliva, tears, and mucous are all examples of what?

Chemotaxis->insertion of microbe->phagosome->phagolysosome->breakdown of microbial enzymese->residual body forms->excrete waste

What are the steps of phagocytosis?

Classical

Which pathway from the complement system is activated when an antibody bind to an antigen, which results in the formation of the C1qrs complex?

C4b2a

What is the C3 convertase of the classical and lectin pathways?

Lectin pathway

Which complement pathway is initiated when soluble protein recognize antigens, and lectins bind to the microbial surface?

MASPs

In the lectin pathway, what is responsible for cleavage of C4 and C2 to form C4b2a (C3 convertase)?

C4b2a3b

What is the C5 convertase of the classical and lectin pathways?

Alternate pathway

Which complement pathway starts when C3b binds to the membrane of a target cell, Factor B binds and is cleaved by Factor D?

C3bBb

What is the C3 convertase of the alternative pathway?

C3bBb3b

What is the C5 convertase of the alternative pathway?

C5 convertase

What part of all three complement pathways initiate the BIG MAC attack?

C3b

What component of the complement pathways is used to opsonize antigens?

Macrophages and neutrophils

What are the two professional phagocytes?

Hapten

What is a molecule that is too small to generate an immune response, but when paired with a carrier molecule can generate a response?

2 heavy chains and 2 light chains

What is the structure of an antibody?

Fc (stem)

What is the part of an antibody that is used to identify different classes?

IgG

What is the only antibody that is able to cross the placenta, and is the most predominant in the serum?

IgA

What is the most abundant antibody in the body, and is associated with the mucous membranes?

IgA

Which antibody is a dimer?

IgM

Which antibody is a pentamer, and is the default antibody of the body?

IgE

Which antibody binds to mast cells and basophils in response to allergens and parasitic worms?

MHC I

Which MHC will bind Killer CD8 T cells?

MHC 2

Which MHC will bind Helper CD4 T cells?

Anergy

What happens if a T cell doesn't receive two signals to activate it?