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45 Terms

1
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Which of the following conditions is associated with peripheral or night vision loss and is most common in children and teenagers?

A) Macular degeneration

B) Retinal detachment

C) Retinitis pigmentosa

D) Amaurosis fugax

C) Retinitis pigmentosa

2
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What is a common characteristic of dry macular degeneration?

A) Drusen bodies

B) Blood vessel burst

C) Curtain over vision

D) Fleeting blindness

A) Drusen bodies

3
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Which anatomical structure separates the nose into two chambers?

A) Ala

B) Philtrum

C) Septum

D) Turbinate

C) Septum

4
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Which of the following is NOT a cause of septal perforations in the nose?

A) Trauma

B) Surgery

C) Allergic rhinitis

D) Cocaine use

C) Allergic rhinitis

5
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What is the term for a painless growth inside the nose often caused by allergic rhinitis?

A) Rhinophyma

B) Nasal polyps

C) Epistaxis

D) Sinus infection

B) Nasal polyps

6
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Which retinal condition presents with a central blind spot and is associated with age-related changes?

A) Retinitis pigmentosa

B) Macular degeneration

C) Retinal detachment

D) Amaurosis fugax

B) Macular degeneration

7
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Which of the following retinal signs indicates the presence of arteriosclerosis or atherosclerosis?

A) Nicking

B) Copper wiring

C) Banking

D) Tapering

B) Copper wiring

8
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Which structure in the nose is responsible for filtering and humidifying the air we breathe?

A) Ala

B) Septum

C) Turbinate

D) Nares

C) Turbinate

9
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What condition is characterized by a bluish-squishy cyst on the lower lip?

A) Actinic cheilitis

B) Mucocele

C) Herpes simplex

D) Chancre of syphilis

B) Mucocele

10
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Which sign is most indicative of a sinus infection?

A) Blue mucosa

B) Asymmetric transillumination

C) Pain in the ears

D) Epistaxis

B) Asymmetric transillumination

11
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True or False: Retinal detachment often presents as sudden floaters and a sensation of a curtain over the vision.

True

12
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True or False: Copper wiring in the retina indicates a thick artery with a coppery color and is associated with arteriosclerosis or atherosclerosis.

True

13
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True or False: Actinic cheilitis is a condition of the upper lip caused by sun exposure and is considered precancerous.

False

14
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True or False: Herpes simplex type 1, also known as cold sores or fever blisters, is spread by oral contact and is often triggered by stress.

True

15
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True or False: A gray tooth that is insensitive to pain typically indicates a dead tooth.

True

16
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Which of the following is an early sign of retinal detachment?

A) Pain in the eyes

B) Sudden floaters

C) Gradual loss of color vision

D) Increased tear production

B) Sudden floaters

17
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Amaurosis fugax is best described as:

A) Persistent loss of vision in one eye

B) Temporary, fleeting blindness

C) Permanent peripheral vision loss

D) Chronic double vision

B) Temporary, fleeting blindness

18
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Which of the following is the most common cause of allergic rhinitis?

A) Bacterial infection

B) Viral infection

C) Seasonal allergens

D) Fungal spores

C) Seasonal allergens

19
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A patient presents with a nose divot, which is commonly associated with:

A) Rhinophyma

B) Saddle nose

C) Septal perforation

D) Nasal polyp

B) Saddle nose

20
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Which condition is indicated by the presence of red bumps on and around the nose?

A) Epistaxis

B) Rhinitis medicamentosa

C) Rhinophyma

D) Nasal cancer

C) Rhinophyma

21
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The Amsler Grid is primarily used to diagnose:

A) Retinitis pigmentosa

B) Retinal detachment

C) Macular degeneration

D) Amaurosis fugax

C) Macular degeneration

22
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Which of the following is a distinguishing feature of allergic rhinitis compared to infectious rhinitis?

A) Red mucosa

B) Thick nasal discharge

C) Blue mucosa

D) Fever

C) Blue mucosa

23
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Which condition is characterized by a thick, scaly-red lower lip caused by sun exposure and is considered precancerous?

A) Herpes simplex

B) Actinic cheilitis

C) Cheilosis

D) Peutz-Jeghers Syndrome

B) Actinic cheilitis

24
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Which condition is indicated by a firm, painless ulcer on the lip lasting more than two weeks?

A) Herpes simplex

B) Labial carcinoma

C) Chancre of syphilis

D) Actinic cheilitis

B) Labial carcinoma

25
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In a patient with retinal arteriosclerosis, which retinal sign would you most likely observe?

A) Narrowing of the veins

B) Copper or silver wiring of the arteries

C) Tapering of the veins

D) Humping of the arteries

B) Copper or silver wiring of the arteries

26
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What is the cause of Epulis, a benign fibrous growth of the gum between teeth?

A) Vitamin deficiency

B) Ill-fitting dentures

C) Poor oral hygiene

D) Genetic predisposition

B) Ill-fitting dentures

27
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Kaposi's Sarcoma is typically seen in patients with which condition?

A) Diabetes

B) AIDS

C) Hepatitis

D) Tuberculosis

B) AIDS

28
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Which of the following conditions presents as white, creamy patches on the tongue that can be scraped off?

A) Leukoplakia

B) Candidiasis (Thrush)

C) Lichen planus

D) Geographic tongue

B) Candidiasis (Thrush)

29
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Leukoplakia is characterized by:

A) White patches that can be scraped off

B) Thickened white patches that cannot be scraped off

C) Thin, lacy white patches

D) Red, swollen patches on the tongue

B) Thickened white patches that cannot be scraped off

30
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Which lymph node enlargement is typically associated with a bacterial infection and high fever?

A) Posterior lymph node enlargement

B) Anterior lymph node enlargement

C) General lymph node enlargement

D) Cervical lymph node enlargement

B) Anterior lymph node enlargement

31
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What is the recommended action for a patient presenting with a peritonsillar abscess, also known as "Quincy Throat"?

A) Prescribe antibiotics

B) Recommend home remedies

C) Refer out to a specialist

D) Perform immediate surgery

C) Refer out to a specialist

32
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Which of the following breath odors is indicative of end-stage liver failure?

A) Fetor orris

B) Fetor hepaticus

C) Acetone

D) Ammonia

B) Fetor hepaticus

33
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Which condition is associated with excessive saliva in the mouth due to neurological disorders like CN XII paralysis?

A) Xerostomia

B) Ptyalism

C) Macroglossia

D) Lingual fissures

B) Ptyalism

34
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Which nail condition is characterized by horizontal/transverse ridging and may indicate systemic illness if seen on multiple nails?

A) Koilonychia

B) Beau's Lines

C) Terry's Nail

D) Clubbed Nails

B) Beau's Lines

35
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Which condition is indicated by yellow nails due to decreased lymphatic circulation and is often associated with edema?

A) Onychomycosis

B) Yellow Nail Syndrome

C) Anonychia

D) Paronychia

B) Yellow Nail Syndrome

36
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Which condition is characterized by a raised, purple lesion on the soft palate and is commonly seen in AIDS patients?

A) Torus Palatinus

B) Kaposi's Sarcoma

C) Leukoplakia

D) Candidiasis

B) Kaposi's Sarcoma

37
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Which of the following conditions involves thickened white patches in the mouth that cannot be scraped off and is considered precancerous?

A) Candidiasis

B) Lichen planus

C) Leukoplakia

D) Torus Mandibularis

C) Leukoplakia

38
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What is the primary symptom of Peritonsillar Abscess, also known as "Quincy Throat"?

A) Bilateral earache

B) Unilateral sore throat

C) Difficulty swallowing

D) Generalized lymph node enlargement

B) Unilateral sore throat

39
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Which condition involves a midline growth in the hard palate that is benign and fairly common?

A) Torus Mandibularis

B) Torus Palatinus

C) Epulis

D) Granuloma

B) Torus Palatinus

40
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Which white patch condition in the mouth presents as thin, lacy, spiderweb-like patches and is painful?

A) Leukoplakia

B) Candidiasis

C) Lichen planus

D) Geographic tongue

C) Lichen planus

41
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What is the most likely cause of a mildewy odor on a patient's breath, known as "Fetor hepaticus"?

A) Advanced kidney disease

B) End-stage liver failure

C) Diabetes mellitus

D) Chronic lung infection

B) End-stage liver failure

42
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Which condition of the tongue is characterized by an enlargement and is commonly associated with Down Syndrome or congenital hypothyroidism (myxedema)?

A) Macroglossia

B) Ankyloglossia

C) Lingual fissures

D) Geographic tongue

A) Macroglossia

43
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Which nail condition is indicative of iron deficiency and presents as concave, thin, and brittle nails?

A) Beau's Lines

B) Koilonychia

C) Terry's Nail

D) Nail Pitting

B) Koilonychia

44
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What condition is diagnosed when a patient presents with a painless chancre on the tongue that is firm with a defined margin?

A) Tuberculosis

B) Aphthous ulcer

C) Chancre of syphilis

D) Carcinoma

C) Chancre of syphilis

45
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Which condition is suggested by the presence of linear bleeding beneath the nail bed, known as splinter hemorrhages?

A) Onycholysis

B) Nail Pitting

C) Splinter hemorrhage

D) Anonychia

C) Splinter hemorrhage