Private Pilot

1. The numbers 8 and 26 on the approach ends of the runway indicate that the runway is orientated approximately

• 008° and 026° true.

• 080° and 260° true.

• 080° and 260° magnetic.

080° and 260° magnetic.

2 The numbers 9 and 27 on a runway indicate that the runway is oriented approximately

• 009° and 027° true.

• 090° and 270° true.

• 090° and 270° magnetic.

090° and 270° magnetic.

3. Runway markings are what color?

• Yellow.

• Blue.

• White.

White

4. When should you hold short of an ILS critical area when departing?

• Only when directed by ATC in the control tower.

• When IMC conditions prevail at the airport.

• When the rotating beacon is illuminated during the day.

Only when directed by ATC in the control tower.

5. (Refer to Figure 48 on page 105) According to the airport diagram, which statement is true?

A. Position E on Runway 30 is available for landing.

B. Takeoffs may be started at position A on Runway 12, and the landing portion of this runway begins at position B.

C. The takeoff and landing portion of Runway 12 begins at position B.

Takeoffs may be started at position A on Runway 12, and the landing portion of this runway begins at position B.

6. (Refer to Figure 48 on page 105.) What is the difference between area A and area E on the airport depicted?

• "A" may be used for taxi and takeoff; "E" may be used only as an overrun.

• "A" may be used for all operations except heavy aircraft landings; "E" may be used only as an overrun.

• "A" may be used only for taxiing; "E" may be used for all operations except landings.

"A" may be used for taxi and takeoff; "E" may be used only as an overrun.

7. (Refer to Figure 48 on page 105) Area Con the airport depicted is classified as a

• stabilized area.

• multiple heliport.

• closed taxiway.

closed taxiway

8. (Refer to Figure 48 on page 105) That portion of the runway identified by the letter A may be used for

• landing.

• taxiing and takeoff.

• taxiing and landing.

taxiing and takeoff

9. What is the purpose of the runway/runway hold position sign?

• Denotes entrance to runway from a taxiway.

• Denotes area protected for an aircraft approaching or departing a runway.

• Denotes intersecting runways.

Denotes intersecting runways

10. The 'yellow demarcation bar' marking indicates

• runway with a displaced threshold that precedes the runway.

• a hold line from a taxiway to a runway.

• the beginning of available runway for landing on the approach side.

runway with a displaced threshold that precedes the runway

11. (Refer to Figure 99 below.) From the flight deck, this marking confirms the aircraft to be

• on a taxiway, about to enter runway zone.

• on a runway, about to clear.

• near an instrument approach clearance zone.

on a runway, about to clear

12 (Refer to Figure 64 below.) Which marking indicates a vehicle lane?

A A

в. С.

C. E.

C

13. (Refer to Figure 65 above.) Which of the signs in the figure is a mandatory instruction sign?

• D

• G.

• H.

D

14. (Refer to Figure 65 above.) Which sign is a designation and direction of an exit taxiway from a runway?

• J.

• F.

• K.

K

15.(Refer to Figure 65 on page 108.) Which sign Dorties where aircraft are prohibited from entering?

A. D.

B. G.

C. B.

D

16 (Refer to Figure 65 on page 108) (Refer to E.) This sign is a visual clue that 

A. confirms the aircraft's location to be on taxiway "B."

B. warns the pilot of approaching taxiway 

C. "B." indicates "B"holding area is ahead.

confirms the aircraft's location to be on taxiway "B."

17. (Refer to Figure 65 on page 108) (Refer to F.) This sign confirms your position on

• runway 22

• routing to runway 22.

• taxiway 22.

runway 22

18. The purpose of an enhanced taxiway centerline is to

A. identify the location of taxiing aircraft during low visibility operations.

B. highlight an approaching runway holding position marking.

C. supplement location signs in confirming the designation of the taxiway.

highlight an approaching runway holding position marking

19. What does the outbound destination sign identify?

• Identifies entrance to the runway from a taxiway.

• Identifies runway on which an aircraft is located.

• Identifies direction to take-off runways.

Identifies direction to take-off runways

20.When approaching taxiway holding lines from the side with the continuous lines, the pilot

• may continue taxiing.

• should not cross the lines without ATC clearance.

• should continue taxiing until all parts of the aircraft have crossed the lines.

should not cross the lines without ATC clearance

21. When turning onto a taxiway from another taxiway, what is the purpose of the taxiway directional sign?

• Indicates direction to take-off runway.

• Indicates designation and direction of exit taxiway from runway.

• Indicates designation and direction of taxiway leading out of an intersection.

Indicates designation and direction of taxiway leading out of an intersection

22. What purpose does the taxiway location sign serve?

• Provides general taxiing direction to named runway.

• Denotes entrance to runway from a taxiway.

• Identifies taxiway on which an aircraft is located.

Identifies taxiway on which an aircraft is located

23. Enhanced taxiway centerline markings are enhanced for a maximum of how many feet prior to the runway holding position markings?

A. 50

B. 100

C. 150

150

24. (Refer to Figure 63 on page 111.) At Toledo Executive Airport, a pilot would activate the runway VASI and REIL lights at night by

• 7 clicks on CTAF 123.05.

• 5 clicks on CTAF 123.05.

• 3 clicks on CAF 123.05.

5 clicks on CTAF 123.05.

25. A lighted heliport may be identified by a

• green, yellow, and white rotating beacon.

• flashing yellow light.

• blue lighted square landing area.

green, yellow, and white rotating beacon.

26. A military air station can be identified by a rotating beacon that emits

• white and green alternating flashes.

• two quick, white flashes between green flashes.

• green, yellow, and white flashes.

two quick, white flashes between green flashes

27. An airport's rotating beacon operated during daylight hours indicates

• there are obstructions on the airport.

• that weather at the airport located in Class D airspace is below basic VFR weather minimums.

• the Air Traffic Control tower is not in operation.

that weather at the airport located in Class D airspace is below basic VFR weather minimums

28. How can a military airport be identified at night?

• Alternate white and green light flashes.

• Dual peaked (two quick) white flashes between green flashes.

• White flashing lights with steady green at the same location.

Dual peaked (two quick) white flashes between green flashes

29. Airport taxiway edge lights are identified at night

• white directional lights.

• blue omnidirectional lights.

• alternate red and green lights.

blue omnidirectional lights

30. To set the high intensity runway lights on medium intensity, the pilot should click the microphone seven times, and then click it

• one time within 4 seconds.

• three times within 3 seconds.

• five times within 5 seconds.

five times within 5 seconds

31.When approaching to land on a runway served ya visual approach slope indicator (VASI), the pilot

A. maintain an altitude that captures the glide slope at least 2 miles downwind from the runway threshold.

B. maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope.

C. remain on the glide slope and land between the two-light bar.

maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope

32. A below glide slope indication from a pulsating approach slope indicator is a

A. pulsating white light. above

B. steady white light. on

C. pulsating red light. below

pulsating red light. below

33. While operating in class D airspace, each pilot of an aircraft approaching to land on a runway served by a visual approach slope indicator (VASI) shall

A. maintain a 3° glide until approximately 12 mile to the runway before going below the VASI.

B. maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope until a lower altitude is necessary for a safe landing.

C. stay high until the runway can be reached in a power-off landing.

maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope until a lower altitude is necessary for a safe landing

34. Which approach and landing objective is assured when the pilot remains on the proper glidepath of the VASI?

• Continuation of course guidance after transition to VFR.

• Safe obstruction clearance in the approach area.

• Course guidance from the visual descent point to touchdown.

Safe obstruction clearance in the approach area

35. Each pilot of an aircraft approaching to land on a runway served by a visual approach slope indicator (VASI) shall

• maintain a 3° glide to the runway.

• maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope

• stay high until the runway can be reached in a power-off landing

maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope

36.(Refer to Figure 47 below.) Illustration A indicates that the aircraft is

• below the glide slope.

• on the glide slope.

• above the glide slope.

on the glide slope

37. (Refer to Figure 47 below.) While on final approach to a runway equipped with a standard 2-bar VASI, the lights appear as shown by illustration D. This means that the aircraft is

• above the glide path.

• below the glide path.

• on the glide path.

below the glide path

38. (Refer to Figure 47 above.) VASI lights as shown by illustration C indicate that the airplane is

• off course to the left.

• above the glide slope.

• below the glide slope.

above the glide slope

39.Which approach and landing objective is assured when the pilot remains on the proper glidepath of the VASI?

A. Runway identification and course guidance.

B. Safe obstruction clearance in the approach area.

C. Lateral course guidance to the runway.

Safe obstruction clearance in the approach area

40. A slightly high glide slope indication from a precision approach path indicator is

A. four white lights.

B. three white lights and one red light.

c. two white lights and two red lights.

three white lights and one red light

41. Which is the correct traffic pattern departure procedure to use at a noncontrolled airport?

• Depart in any direction consistent with safety, after crossing the airport boundary.

• Make all turns to the left.

• Comply with any FAA traffic pattern established for the airport.

Comply with any FAA traffic pattern established for the airport

42. The recommended entry position to an airport traffic pattern is

• 45° to the base leg just below traffic pattern altitude.

• to enter 45° at the midpoint of the downwind leg at traffic pattern altitude.

• to cross directly over the airport at traffic pattern altitude and join the downwind leg.

to enter 45° at the midpoint of the downwind leg at traffic pattern altitude

43. You are on approach to land on Runway 19 of a non-towered airport. You observe ripples on the southeast side of a small lake 3/4 mi. east of the airport. What is the most appropriate course of action?

• Proceed with your approach to Runway 19.

• Maneuver for an approach to Runway 01.

• Check the wind sock to determine the appropriate runway.

Check the wind sock to determine the appropriate runway

44. (Refer to Figure 50 on page 117.) The segmented circle indicates that the airport traffic is

• left-hand for Runway 36 and right-hand for Runway 18.

• left-hand for Runway 18 and right-hand for Runway 36.

• right-hand for Runway 9 and left-hand for Runway 27.

left-hand for Runway 36 and right-hand for Runway 18

45. (Refer to Figure 50 above.) Which runway and traffic pattern should be used as indicated by the wind cone in the segmented circle?

• Right-hand traffic on Runway 9.

• Right-hand traffic on Runway 18.

• Left-hand traffic on Runway 36.

Left-hand traffic on Runway 36

46. (Refer to Figure 50 above.) The traffic patterns indicated in the segmented circle have been arranged to avoid flights over an area to the

• south of the airport.

• north of the airport.

• southeast of the airport.

southeast of the airport

47. (Refer to Figure 50 above.) The segmented circle indicates that a landing on Runway 26 will be with a

• right-quartering headwind.

• left-quartering headwind.

• right-quartering tailwind.

right-quartering headwind

48. (Refer to Figure 49 below.) If the wind is as shown by the landing direction indicator, the pilot should land on

A. Runway 18 and expect a crosswind from the right.

B. Runway 22 directly into the wind.

C. Runway 36 and expect a crosswind from the right.

Runway 18 and expect a crosswind from the right.

49. (Refer to Figure 49 below.) The arrows that appear on the end of the north/south runway indicate that the area

• may be used only for taxiing.

• is usable for taxiing, takeoff, and landing.

• cannot be used for landing, but may be used for taxiing and takeoff.

cannot be used for landing, but may be used for taxiing and takeoff.

50. (Refer to Figure 49 below. Select the proper traffic pattern and runway for landing.

• Left-hand traffic and Runway 18.

• Right-hand traffic and Runway 18.

• Left-hand traffic and Runway 22.

Right-hand traffic and Runway 18.

51.wingtip vortices are created only when an aircraft is 

A. operating at high airspeeds.

B. heavily loaded.

C. developing lift.

developing lift.

52. Wingtip vortices created by large aircraft tend to 

A. sink below the aircraft generating turbulence.

B. rise into the traffic pattern.

C. rise into the takeoff or landing path of a crossing runway.

sink below the aircraft generating turbulence

53. When taking off or landing at an airport where heavy aircraft are operating, one should be particularly alert to the hazards of wingtip vortices because this turbulence tends to

A. rise from a crossing runway into the takeoff or landing path.

B. rise into the traffic pattern area surrounding the airport.

C. sink into the flightpath of aircraft operating below the aircraft generating the turbulence.

sink into the flightpath of aircraft operating below the aircraft generating the turbulence.

54. When landing behind a large aircraft, the pilot should avoid wake turbulence by staying

A. above the large aircraft's final approach path and landing beyond the large aircraft's touchdown point.

B. below the large aircraft's final approach path and landing before the large aircraft's touchdown point.

C. above the large aircraft's final approach path and landing before the large aircraft's touchdown point.

above the large aircraft's final approach path and landing beyond the large aircraft's touchdown point

55. The wind condition that requires maximum caution when avoiding wake turbulence on landing

• light, quartering headwind.

• light, quartering tailwind.

• strong headwind.

light, quartering tailwind

56. How does the wake turbulence vortex circulate around each wingtip?

• Inward, upward, and around each tip.

• Inward, upward, and counterclockwise.

• Outward, upward, and around each tip.

Outward, upward, and around each tip

57. When landing behind a large aircraft, which procedure should be followed for vortex avoidance?

• Stay above its final approach flightpath all the way to touchdown.

• Stay below and to one side of its final approach flightpath.

• Stay well below its final approach flightpath and land at least 2,000 feet behind.

Stay above its final approach flightpath all the way to touchdown

58. The greatest vortex strength occurs when the generating aircraft is

• light, dirty, and fast.

• heavy, dirty, and fast.

• heavy, clean, and slow.

heavy, clean, and slow

59. When departing behind a heavy aircraft, the pilot should avoid wake turbulence by maneuvering the aircraft

• below and downwind from the heavy aircraft.

• above and upwind from the heavy aircraft.

• below and upwind from the heavy aircraft.

above and upwind from the heavy aircraft

60. (Refer to Figure 48 on page 121.) With winds reported as from 300° at 4 knots, you are given instructions to taxi to runway 30 for departure and to expect to take off after an airliner, which is departing from runway 35L. What effect would you expect from the airliner's vortices?

• The winds will push the vortices into your takeoff path.

• The crosswind will prevent lateral movement of the vortices.

• The downwind vortex will rapidly dissipate.

The winds will push the vortices into your takeoff path

61. Your flight takes you in the path of a large aircraft. In order to avoid the vortices you should fly

• at the same altitude as the large aircraft.

• below the altitude of the large aircraft.

• above the flight path of the large aircraft.

above the flight path of the large aircraft

62. During a night flight, you observe a steady red light and a flashing red light ahead and at the same altitude. What is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft?

• The other aircraft is crossing to the left.

• The other aircraft is crossing to the right.

• The other aircraft is approaching head-on.

The other aircraft is crossing to the left

63. During a night flight, you observe a steady white light and a flashing red light ahead and at the same altitude. What is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft?

• The other aircraft is flying away from you.

• The other aircraft is crossing to the left.

• The other aircraft is crossing to the right.

The other aircraft is flying away from you

64. During a night flight, you observe steady red and green lights ahead and at the same altitude. What is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft?

• The other aircraft is crossing to the left.

• The other aircraft is flying away from you.

• The other aircraft is approaching head-on.

The other aircraft is approaching head-on

65. How can you determine if another aircraft is on a collision course with your aircraft?

• The other aircraft will always appear to get larger and closer at a rapid rate.

• The nose of each aircraft is pointed at the same point in space.

• There will be no apparent relative motion between your aircraft and the other aircraft.

There will be no apparent relative motion between your aircraft and the other aircraft

66.Eye movements during daytime collision dance scanning should

A. not exceed 10 degrees and view each sector al least 1 second.

B. be 30 degrees and view each sector at least 3 seconds.

C. use peripheral vision by scanning small sectors and utilizing off-center viewing.

not exceed 10 degrees and view each sector al least 1 second

67. The most effective method of scanning for other aircraft for collision avoidance during daylight hours is lo use

A. regularly spaced concentration on the 3-, 9-, and 12-o'clock positions.

B. a series of short, regularly spaced eye movements to search each 10-degree sector.

C. peripheral vision by scanning small sectors and utilizing offcenter viewing.

a series of short, regularly spaced eye movements to search each 10-degree sector

68. Prior to starting each maneuver, pilots should

A. A check altitude, airspeed, and heading indications.

B. visually scan the entire area for collision avoidance.

C. announce their intentions on the nearest CTAF.

visually scan the entire area for collision avoidance

69. What procedure is recommended when climbing or descending VFR on an airway?

• Execute gentle banks left and right for continuous visual scanning of the airspace.

• Advise the nearest FSS of the altitude changes.

• Fly away from the centerline of the airway before changing altitude.

Execute gentle banks left and right for continuous visual scanning of the airspace

70. The most effective method of scanning for other aircraft for collision avoidance during nighttime hours is to use

• regularly spaced concentration on the 3-, 9-, and 12-0'clock positions.

• a series of short, regularly spaced eye movements to search each 30-degree sector.

• peripheral vision by scanning small sectors and utilizing off-center viewing.

peripheral vision by scanning small sectors and utilizing off-center viewing

71. Most midair collision accidents occur during

• hazy days.

• clear days.

• cloudy nights.

Clear days

72. Responsibility for collision avoidance in an alert area rests with

• the controlling agency.

• all pilots.

• Air Traffic Control.

All pilots

73. The Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM) specifically encourages pilots to turn on their landing lights when operating below 10,000 feet, day or night, and especially when operating

• in Class B airspace.

• in conditions of reduced visibility.

• within 15 miles of a towered airport.

in conditions of reduced visibility

74. It is the responsibility of the pilot and crew to report a near midair collision as a result of proximity of at least

• 50 feet or less to another aircraft.

• 500 feet or less to another aircraft.

• 1,000 feet or less to another aircraft.

500 feet or less to another aircraft

75. ADS-B equipment is not required for aircraft in flight above 10,000 ft. MSL

A. because Class A airspace begins at 18,000 ft. MSL.

B. while that flight is still being conducted below 2,500 ft. AGL

C. because the equipment is not required above this altitude.

while that flight is still being conducted below 2,500 ft. AGL

76.Can aircraft without ADS-B Out equipment oeny Class C airspace?

A. Yes, as long as contact with the controlling facilty is maintained for the duration of the overflight.

B. Yes, if flight is maintained at or above 10,000 ft. MSL.

C. Yes, but only in exceptional circumstances because flight over Class C airspace is not permitted without appropriate ADS-B equipment.

Yes, but only in exceptional circumstances because flight over Class C airspace is not permitted without appropriate ADS-B equipment.

77. ADS-B equipment offers many benefits to pilots; however, the range of coverage for air traffic controllers is

• limited, and often worse than radar.

• restricted in remote areas such as mountainous terrain.

• often better than radar, even in remote areas

often better than radar, even in remote areas

78. Any airspace that requires the use of a transponder also requires aircraft to be

A. equipped with specific ADS-B Out equipment. 

B. on a VFR flight plan with ADS-B Out in the transmit mode at all times.

C. on an FR flight plan with ADS-B Out equipment.

equipped with specific ADS-B Out equipment.

79. Onboard ADS-B Out equipment is useful to pilots and ATC controllers

• all the time, even when aircraft are positioned on the airport surface.

• any time the aircraft is above 2,500 ft. AGL.

• only during the times ATC requires it to be active.

all the time, even when aircraft are positioned on the airport surface

80. When should ADS-B equipment be operated on the ground while taxiing?

• Only when AT specifically requests your
  ADS-B equipment be activated.

• Any time when the airport is operating under IFR conditions.

• All the time when on the airport surface.

All the time when on the airport surface

81. After landing at a tower-controlled airport, when should the pilot contact ground control?

A. When advised by the tower to do so.

B. Prior to turning off the runway.

C. After reaching a taxiway that leads directly to the parking area.

When advised by the tower to do so.

82. If instructed by ground control to taxi to inway 9, the pilot may proceed

• via taxiways and across runways to, but not onto, Runway 9.

• to the next intersecting runway where further clearance is required.

• via taxiways and across runways to Runway 9, where an immediate takeoff may be made.

to the next intersecting runway where further clearance is required

83. Automatic Terminal Information Service (ATIS) s the continuous broadcast of recorded information concerning

• pilots of radar-identified aircraft whose aircraft is in dangerous proximity to terrain or to an obstruction.

• nonessential information to reduce frequency congestion.

• noncontrol information in selected high-activity terminal areas.

noncontrol information in selected high-activity terminal areas.

84. Absence of the sky condition and visibility on an ATIS broadcast indicates that

• weather conditions are at or above VFR minimums.

• the sky condition is clear and visibility is unrestricted.

• the ceiling is at least 5,000 feet and visibility is 5 miles or more.

the ceiling is at least 5,000 feet and visibility is 5 miles or more

85. You have lost communications and need to land at a Class D airport. What is one step you do not do?

A. Squawk 7600

B. Squawk 7500

C. Orbit until you receive the solid green light gun signal  

Squawk 7500

86. While on final approach for landing, an remating green and red light followed by a flashing Ted light is received from the control tower. Under these circumstances, the pilot should

A. discontinue the approach, fly the same traffic pattem and approach again, and land.

B. exercise extreme caution and abandon the approach, realizing the airport is unsafe for landing.

C. abandon the approach, circle the airport to the right, and expect a flashing white light when the airport is safe for landing.

exercise extreme caution and abandon the approach, realizing the airport is unsafe for landing

87. If the aircraft's radio fails, what is the recommended procedure when landing at a controlled airport?

• Observe the traffic flow, enter the pattern, and look for a light signal from the tower.

• Enter a crosswind leg and rock the wings.

• Flash the landing lights and cycle the landing gear while circling the airport.

Observe the traffic flow, enter the pattern, and look for a light signal from the tower

88. A steady green light signal directed from the control tower to an aircraft in flight is a signal that the pilot

• is cleared to land.

• should give way to other aircraft and continue circling.

• should return for landing.

is cleared to land

89. A flashing white light signal from the control tower to a taxiing aircraft is an indication to

• taxi at a faster speed.

• taxi only on taxiways and not cross runways.

• return to the starting point on the airport.

return to the starting point on the airport

90. If the control tower uses a light signal to direct a pilot to give way to other aircraft and continue circling, the light will be

• flashing red.

• steady red

• alternating red and green.

Steady red

91. Which light signal from the control tower clears a pilot to taxi?

• Flashing green.

• Steady green.

• Flashing white.

Flashing green

92. An alternating red and green light signal directed from the control tower to an aircraft in flight is a signal to

• hold position.

• exercise extreme caution.

• not land; the airport is unsafe.

exercise extreme caution

93. When a control tower located on an airport within Class D airspace ceases operation for the day, what happens to the airspace designation?

• The airspace designation normally will not change.

• The airspace remains Class D airspace as long as a weather observer or automated weather system is available.

• The airspace reverts to Class E or a combination of Class E and G airspace during the hours the tower is not in operation.

The airspace reverts to Class E or a combination of Class E and G airspace during the hours the tower is not in operation

94. A non-tower satellite airport, within the same Class D airspace as that designated for the primary airport, requires radio communications be established and maintained with the

• satellite airport's UNICOM.

• associated Flight Service Station.

• primary airport's control tower.

primary airport's control tower

95. The lateral dimensions of Class D airspace are based on

A. the number of airports that lie within the Class D airspace.

B. 5 statute miles from the geographical center of the primary airport.

C. the instrument procedures for which the controlled airspace is established.

the instrument procedures for which the controlled airspace is established

96. Unless otherwise authorized, two-way radio communications with Air Traffic Control are required for landings or takeoffs at all towered airports

A. regardless of weather conditions.

B. only when weather conditions are less than VFR.

C. within Class D airspace only when weather conditions are less than VFR.

regardless of weather conditions

97. Airspace at an airport with a part-time control ower is classified as Class D airspace only

A. when the weather minimums are below basic VFR.

B. when the associated control tower is in operation.

C. when the associated Flight Service Station is in operation.

when the associated control tower is in operation

98. When should pilots state their position on the airport when calling the tower for takeoff?

• When visibility is less than 1 mile.

• When parallel runways are in use.

• When departing from a runway intersection.

When departing from a runway intersection

99. The radius of the procedural outer area of Class C airspace is normally

• 10 NM.

• 20 NM.

• 30 NM.

20 NM

100. Under what condition may an aircraft operate from a satellite airport within Class C airspace?

• The pilot must file a flight plan prior to departure.

• The pilot must monitor ATC until clear of the Class C airspace.

• The pilot must contact ATC as soon as practicable after takeoff.

The pilot must contact ATC as soon as practicable after takeoff