Multiple choice test 1: Anatomical & Mechanical assessment

Which cells are responsible for building new bone tissue?

Osteoblasts

At what age do most epiphyseal plates completely ossify?

20–25 years

What contributes most to the stiffness and compressive strength of bone?

Calcium carbonate and calcium phosphate

What component of bone provides tensile strength and flexibility?

Collagen

Which type of bone is found primarily in the shaft of long bones?

Cortical

Bone is considered anisotropic because:

It responds differently to forces depending on direction

Which of the following is a flat bone?

Scapula 

According to Wolff’s Law, what happens when bones experience increased loading stress?

Osteoblast activity increases

Which of the following factors diminishes bone density?

Bed rest

Osteoporosis begins as what condition?

Osteopenia

Which group is most at risk for Type I osteoporosis?

Females after age 50

Which fracture is most common in children due to higher collagen content in bones?

Greenstick fracture

A tendon pulling a chip of bone away from its main structure is called a:

Avulsion fracture

What effect does aging have on collagen in bone?

Collagen is progressively lost

What type of bone injury results from repetitive microdamage before remodeling completes?

Stress fracture

Which of the following joints is classified as immovable (synarthroses)?

Skull sutures

The sternocostal joint is an example of a:

Synchondrosis

What type of joint is the pubic symphysis?

Amphiarthroses

Which of the following is NOT a type of synovial joint?

Symphysis

What is the main role of articular cartilage?

Resist compression and reduce friction

Which tissue connects bone to bone?

Ligament

Which position provides maximum stability in a joint?

Close-packed

Which factor decreases joint stability?

Muscle fatigue

Which receptor inhibits tension in a muscle and stimulates antagonists?

Golgi tendon organ (GTO)

Which stretching technique uses bouncing motions and has higher risk of injury?

Ballistic

Which stretching technique alternates between contraction and relaxation of the target muscle, often with a partner?

PNF

What type of sprain involves complete ligament tearing and instability?

Third-degree

Which joint injury involves displacement of articulating bones, often causing visible deformity?

Dislocation

Which condition is caused by repetitive overuse and results in inflammation of fluid-filled sacs?

Bursitis

Which joint is classified as a synovial condyloid joint that allows flexion/extension of the head (“yes” motion)?

Atlanto-occipital

Which of the following is defined as the ability of a musculotendinous unit to return to its normal resting length after being stretched?

Elasticity

The sarcoplasm of a muscle fiber contains parallel, threadlike structures called myofibrils, which are composed of

Myosin and actin filaments

What constitutes a motor unit?

A single motor neuron and all the muscle fibers it innervates.

 Compared to slow-twitch (ST) fibers, fast-twitch (FT) fibers typically:

Reach higher peak tensions.

Which muscle fiber type has a fast contraction speed and a fast fatigue rate?

Type Two B Fast-twitch Glycolytic (FG)

How is torque produced by a muscle at a joint center of rotation calculated?

Muscle force multiplied by muscle moment arm.

When are motor units with higher activation thresholds progressively activated?

As the duration of the activity increases

A muscle contraction involving the lengthening of a muscle is termed:

Eccentric

Which role is assumed by a muscle that acts to slow or stop a movement?

Antagonist

 According to the force-velocity relationship, when the resistance on a muscle is negligible, the muscle contracts with:

Maximal velocity.

What contributes to the total tension present in a stretched muscle?

The sum of active tension and passive tension.

The stretch-shortening cycle involves:

Eccentric contraction followed immediately by concentric contraction

12. How is muscular strength measured?

As the amount of maximum torque an entire muscle group can generate at a joint.

The scapulothoracic joint is an articulation between:

The anterior scapula and the thoracic wall.

Which muscles are the major flexor muscles at the glenohumeral joint?

Clavicular portion of pectoralis major and anterior deltoid

The major abductor muscles at the glenohumeral joint are:

Middle deltoid and supraspinatus

Which of the following is a major pronator muscle of the forearm?

Pronator quadratus

The flexor muscles of the wrist include:

Flexor carpi radialis, flexor carpi ulnaris, and palmaris longus

18. What defines an extrinsic muscle of the hand?

Proximal attachments are proximal to the wrist and distal attachments are distal to the wrist

The major hip flexors are the large:

Iliacus and psoas major