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What is the vulva?
The external genitalia
Where are Skene's glands located?
Posterior to the urethral meatus
Where are Bartholin's glands located?
On both sides of the introitus
Are Bartholin's glands normally visible or palpable?
No, not normally visible or palpable
What are vaginal folds made of?
Rugae
What two structures make up the uterus?
The fundus and the cervix
What structures make up the adnexa?
The fallopian tubes and ovaries
What shape is the external cervical os in a multiparous woman?
Slit-like
What shape is the external cervical os in a nulliparous woman?
Round
What type of epithelium is found centrally at the cervical os?
Columnar epithelium
What type of epithelium surrounds the central cervical os?
Squamous epithelium
What is the transformation zone of the cervix?
The squamocolumnar junction
Why is the transformation zone clinically significant?
It is at the greatest risk of dysplasia
What shape is a normal ovary?
Almond shaped
How often is the ovary palpable on exam during reproductive years?
About half of the time
What is the definition of infertility?
Inability to conceive after 1 year of sexual intercourse
What maternal medication history is important to ask about?
Whether the patient's mother received diethylstilbestrol (DES) while pregnant with her
Which HPV subtypes are most associated with cervical cancer?
Subtypes 16 and 18
What are risk factors for cervical cancer related to screening and lifestyle?
No screening, multiple sexual partners, smoking, immunosuppression
What are additional risk factors for cervical cancer?
Long-term contraception use, prior cervical cancer history, and family history
At what age should average-risk women begin Pap smears, and how often?
Age 21, every 3 years until age 30
What are the cervical cancer screening options for ages 30-65?
3-year cervical cytology, 5-year high-risk HPV testing alone, or a 5-year cotest
When can cervical cancer screening be stopped or is not needed?
After age 65, after hysterectomy, or if younger than 21
At what age should the HPV vaccine be given?
Ages 11-12, or as early as age 9
Who should receive annual gonorrhea/chlamydia screening?
All sexually active women under 25, and older women if still sexually active
What screening should all pregnant women receive?
Chlamydia, syphilis, hepatitis B, and HIV screening
How often should HIV testing be performed in adults?
At least once in all adults ages 13-64
What position should the patient be in for a pelvic exam?
Lithotomy position
What are the normal characteristics of the cervix on exam?
Pink, even, midline, projecting 1-3 cm into the vagina, about 2.5 cm in diameter
What is the Chandelier sign?
Cervical motion tenderness
What condition does a positive Chandelier sign indicate?
Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)
What should be avoided before performing a Pap smear?
Avoid during menstruation; avoid topical products or intercourse for 48 hours prior
How many specimens are taken for a Pap smear, and from where?
One from the endocervix and one from the ectocervix, or combined using a broom/brush
What additional tests should be done alongside a Pap smear?
Culture for gonorrhea and chlamydia; wet mount for trichomonas, vaginosis, or candidiasis
What are the three purposes of a rectovaginal exam?
Palpate a retroverted uterus, uterosacral ligaments, and adnexa; screen for colorectal cancer; assess pelvic pathology
How do you evaluate a female patient for a groin hernia?
Have the patient stand and perform Valsalva while checking for bulging in the inguinal region
What is the special test for urethritis in women?
Milk the Skene's/paraurethral glands and send the obtained discharge for testing
What physical changes can occur in transgender men on testosterone therapy?
Increased hair growth, clitoromegaly, alopecia, and acne
What effect does testosterone have on the vagina in transgender men?
Vaginal atrophy
What new FDA-approved option is available for vaginal discharge and Pap testing?
Self-collection
What exam considerations apply to transgender women?
Anoscopy may be more appropriate; may have retained prostate tissue, so consider prostatitis
At what age do breast and pubic hair development typically begin?
8-10 years old
What is Tanner staging based on?
A sexual maturity rating based on a study of Caucasian females
Pubic hair Tanner Stage 1 — what does it look like?
Preadolescent; only vellus hair present
Pubic hair Tanner Stage 2 — what does it look like?
Sparse, straight, downy hair
Pubic hair Tanner Stage 3 — what does it look like?
Darker, more coarse/curly hair
Pubic hair Tanner Stage 4 — what does it look like?
Adult-type hair, not yet extending to the medial thigh
Pubic hair Tanner Stage 5 — what does it look like?
Adult pattern, inverse triangle, extending to the medial thigh
Breast Tanner Stage 1 — what does it look like?
Small elevated nipple only
Breast Tanner Stage 2 — what does it look like?
Breast bud with a small mound and widened areola
Breast Tanner Stage 3 — what does it look like?
Further enlargement, with the nipple flush with the breast surface
Breast Tanner Stage 4 — what does it look like?
A secondary mound of areola and nipple above the breast contour
Breast Tanner Stage 5 — what does it look like?
Areola flush with the breast contour; only the nipple protrudes
What is endometriosis?
Presence and growth of endometrial tissue outside of the uterus
What symptoms may endometriosis present with?
Pelvic pain, dysmenorrhea, dyspareunia, dyschezia, and infertility
What is condyloma acuminatum, and what causes it?
Genital warts caused by HPV
What do condyloma acuminatum lesions look like?
Painless, flesh-colored, single or cauliflower-like
What does a syphilitic chancre look like?
Small, solitary, silver, erodes to a red ulcer; painless
What virus most commonly causes genital herpes?
HSV-2
What are the symptoms of genital herpes?
Pain, dysuria, fever, vesicles, and possible inguinal adenopathy
What are the exam findings of a Bartholin's cyst?
Painful, swollen, and fluctuant
What is the most common histologic type of vulvar carcinoma?
Squamous cell carcinoma
What symptoms may vulvar carcinoma present with?
Pruritus, burning, a lesion, or pain
What are the characteristic features of candidiasis discharge?
Very itchy, thick, white, cottage-cheese-like discharge, not malodorous
How is candidiasis diagnosed?
KOH prep, showing branched hyphae
What are the characteristic features of trichomoniasis?
Itchy, watery, malodorous, frothy green discharge with petechiae
How is trichomoniasis diagnosed?
Wet mount showing flagella
What are the characteristic features of bacterial vaginosis?
Diffuse, creamy discharge with a fishy odor
How is bacterial vaginosis diagnosed?
Presence of clue cells on wet mount
What are the symptoms of chlamydia infection?
May be asymptomatic, dysuria, postcoital bleeding, yellow-green discharge, friable cervix
How is chlamydia diagnosed?
Urine NAAT
What are the symptoms of gonorrhea infection?
Vaginal discharge, bleeding, dysuria; may be asymptomatic
How is gonorrhea diagnosed?
Culture
What is Chadwick's sign?
Bluish discoloration of the cervix/vagina due to increased blood flow
When does Chadwick's sign appear, and what does it indicate?
6-8 weeks post-conception; an early sign of pregnancy
What are the presenting symptoms of cervical carcinoma?
Bleeding, pain with intercourse, and an irregular lesion
What are the bimanual exam findings of cervical carcinoma?
An enlarged, firm, immobile cervix
What is a cystocele?
A prolapsed bladder
What are the symptoms/findings of a cystocele?
An anterior bulge that is soft and round, a feeling of pressure, and stress incontinence
What is a rectocele?
A prolapsed rectum, presenting as a posterior bulge
What are myomas of the uterus?
Common, benign uterine growths
What common benign finding can occur in the adnexa?
Ovarian cysts
What is PID?
Infection of the uterus, tubes, and other pelvic organs
What is PID typically a complication of?
Many sexually transmitted infections
What is salpingitis?
Inflammation of the fallopian tubes
What condition is salpingitis often associated with?
Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)