Animal Nutrition Exam 3

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105 Terms

1
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"Conditionally essential amino acids" are best defined as:

Amino acids needed from the diet depending on species, age, or physiological state

2
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Which are essential amino acids for most species?

His, Ile, Leu, Lys, Met, Phe, Thr, Trp, Val

3
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Ruminant diets can include rumen-protected amino acids because:

They resist rumen degradation and supply the small intestine directly with limiting amino acids

4
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Which statement about protein storage is correct?

Protein cannot be stored; excess is catabolized and nitrogen excreted as urea

5
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Which transporter/pathway primarily absorbs di- and tripeptides across the intestinal brush border?

PEPT

6
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Which describes the primary structure of a protein?

Sequence of amino acids linked by peptide bonds

7
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Which digestive enzyme is a gastric enzyme active at low pH?

Pepsin

8
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Which amino acids are strictly ketogenic?

Lysine and leucine

9
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Which statement about amino acid catabolism is TRUE?

The amino group is converted to urea primarily in liver

10
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Which pairing of metabolic fate with definition is CORRECT?

Ketogenesis—formation of ketone bodies from acetyl-CoA

11
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Which molecules directly read codons and bring amino acids during translation?

tRNA (with amino acids attached)

12
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A "codon" is:

A three-base sequence in mRNA specifying an amino acid or stop

13
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"Translation" is the process of:

Converting mRNA codons into an amino acid sequence on ribosomes

14
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"Transcription" in protein synthesis is:

Making RNA from DNA in the nucleus

15
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"Ideal protein" in diet formulation is best defined as:

A dietary amino acid pattern that matches the animal's requirement profile

16
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The "limiting amino acid" concept means:

The amino acid in shortest supply relative to need restricts protein synthesis

17
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At physiological pH, most free amino acids exist as:

Zwitterions (both positive and negative charges)

18
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In typical poultry diets, the first limiting amino acid is often:

Methionine

19
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In typical swine diets (grains + soybean meal), the first limiting amino acid is usually:

Lysine

20
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Why is formulating on digestible (not total) amino acids important?

Digestibility varies by ingredient, species, age, and processing

21
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"Digestible amino acids" in feed formulation refers to:

The fraction of amino acids actually absorbed by the animal

22
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Glutamine has which notable role?

Major energy source for certain immune cells; supports gut and muscle protein metabolism

23
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Arginine can be converted to nitric oxide and:

Creatine and polyamines

24
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Which is a correct example of a functional amino acid conversion?

Tryptophan → serotonin and melatonin

25
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"Functional amino acids" are best described as amino acids that:

Have specific physiological roles beyond protein synthesis/energy (e.g., NO, serotonin)

26
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Which sequence correctly traces the urea cycle steps (simplified)?

Ornithine → Citrulline → Argininosuccinate → Arginine → Urea + Ornithine

27
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The urea cycle primarily occurs in the:

Liver (some in kidney)

28
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The "α-carbon" of an amino acid is directly bonded to which four groups?

Carboxyl, amino, hydrogen, and side chain (R)

29
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For dairy rations, which amino acids are most often limiting and sometimes fed in rumen-protected forms?

Methionine and lysine

30
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"Rumen-undegradable protein" (RUP) is also called:

Escape protein (bypass protein)

31
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Urea recycling in ruminants refers to:

Urea formed in liver returning to rumen via saliva or diffusion for microbial use

32
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Nonprotein nitrogen (NPN) in the rumen is first converted to:

Ammonia, then used to synthesize microbial amino acids

33
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Microbial protein leaving the rumen is valuable because it:

Contains all essential amino acids for the animal

34
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In ruminants, rumen-degradable protein (RDP):

Is hydrolyzed by microbes to peptides and amino acids for microbial protein synthesis

35
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Which statement about colostrum immunoglobulins is correct?

They can be absorbed intact in early life via Fc receptors/pinocytosis

36
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Which statement about amino acid absorption is TRUE?

Most amino acids use carrier-mediated systems (some Na+-dependent, some facilitated)

37
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Approximately what fraction of amino acid absorption occurs via PEPT pathways (di-/tripeptides)?

≥50%

38
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The PEPT transporters in enterocytes mainly absorb:

Dipeptides and tripeptides

39
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What is the bond that links amino acids together in proteins?

Peptide bond

40
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Aminopeptidase and dipeptidase are secreted by:

Small intestinal mucosa

41
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Carboxypeptidase B mainly removes which amino acids from the carboxyl end?

Basic (Arg, Lys)

42
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Carboxypeptidase A mainly removes which amino acids from the carboxyl end?

Aromatic and aliphatic

43
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Elastase (activated by trypsin) preferentially generates peptides ending with:

Aliphatic residues (Ala, Gly, Ile, Leu, Val)

44
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Chymotrypsin is activated by trypsin and preferentially cleaves next to:

Aromatic residues (Phe, Tyr, Trp)

45
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Trypsin preferentially cleaves peptide bonds to yield peptides ending with which residues at the carboxyl end?

Basic residues (Arg, Lys, His)

46
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Trypsin is secreted by the pancreas as trypsinogen and is activated in the small intestine by:

Enterokinase (enteropeptidase)

47
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Which protease is secreted in the stomach and activated at low pH?

Pepsin

48
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Which is an example of a peptide hormone?

Insulin

49
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Which statement best defines an enzyme?

A protein catalyst that speeds biochemical reactions

50
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Protein molecules are primarily composed of which elements?

C, H, O, N (and sometimes S, P)

51
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Grass tetany is:

Hypomagnesemia, often when grazing low-Mg, high-K spring pasture

52
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Milk fever (parturient paresis) is characterized by:

Hypocalcemia in high-producing dairy cows soon after calving

53
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Osteomalacia refers to:

Bone softening in adults due to demineralization

54
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Rickets in young animals is:

Softening/deformation of bones due to failed mineralization

55
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Superoxide dismutase (SOD) is important because it:

Converts superoxide radicals to less reactive species (antioxidant; Cu-containing form)

56
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Glutathione peroxidase is:

A selenium-dependent enzyme that removes peroxides/free radicals

57
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A hemoprotein is best described as:

A protein containing a heme group with iron

58
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Which are typical calcium sources in feeds?

Ground limestone, oyster shell flour, and (di/mono/tri)-calcium phosphates

59
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A central role of selenium (Se) is:

Component of glutathione peroxidase protecting membranes from oxidative damage

60
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Excess dietary zinc can:

Interfere with Cu and Fe absorption and cause anemia

61
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A hallmark of zinc (Zn) deficiency is:

Rough hair coat, poor feathering, and impaired growth

62
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Iodine's primary role is in:

Thyroid hormone synthesis (thyroxine/T₄ and triiodothyronine/T₃)

63
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Cobalt (Co) nutrition is best summarized as:

Rumen microbes use Co to synthesize cobalamin; monogastrics need preformed cobalamin

64
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Copper (Cu) functions include all except:

Major component of thyroid hormones

65
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Newborn pigs commonly receive Fe injections because:

Sow's milk is low in Fe and piglets grow rapidly indoors

66
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Which statement about iron (Fe) is correct?

Fe is a key component of hemoglobin and myoglobin for O₂ transport/storage

67
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Sulfur (S) nutrition is important largely because:

S is a component of Met, Cys, biotin, and thiamin; rumen microbes use S to make S-amino acids

68
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Which statement best defines microminerals?

Minerals required in milligram (trace) amounts compared with macrominerals

69
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Na⁺/K⁺ are required for which of the following?

Sodium-dependent transport of glucose/neutral amino acids and nerve impulses

70
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Regarding fluid distribution, which is correct?

Most Na⁺ and Cl⁻ are extracellular; most K⁺ is intracellular

71
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Magnesium (Mg) deficiency in grazing ruminants commonly presents as:

Grass tetany on low-Mg, high-K pastures

72
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The enzyme phytase is added to some monogastric feeds primarily to:

Hydrolyze phytate and improve phosphorus availability

73
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Which is a major role of phosphorus (P)?

Component of ATP, phospholipids, RNA, and DNA

74
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A classic sign of calcium deficiency in young animals is:

Rickets with bone deformities

75
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Which statement about vitamin D and calcium is correct?

Vitamin D stimulates Ca absorption and incorporation into bone/teeth

76
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The recommended dietary Ca:P ratio to promote bioavailability is approximately:

1.5:1 to 3:1

77
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Which pair most accurately matches mineral and primary location/function?

Ca — 99% in skeleton; blood clotting and muscle contraction

78
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Phytate (phytate-P) in plant feeds is:

A storage form of P largely unavailable to simple-stomached animals without phytase

79
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Which statement best defines macrominerals in animal nutrition?

Minerals needed in gram amounts relative to microminerals

80
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In animals, retinoids (vitamin A forms) include:

Retinol, retinal, retinoic acid

81
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Cleavage of beta-carotene to vitamin A in enterocytes requires:

Dioxygenase and reductase

82
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Niacin (B3) can be synthesized from tryptophan at about:

45-60:1

83
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A core structural role of ascorbic acid is in forming:

Hydroxylysine and hydroxyproline for connective tissues

84
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Thiamin (B1) is typically destroyed by:

Heat and alkaline pH

85
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Cobalamin (B12) is found in which sources and has which key feature?

Animal tissues; produced by bacteria; contains cobalt

86
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Pyridoxine (B6) as PLP primarily supports:

Transamination and amino acid metabolism

87
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Riboflavin (B2) serves as a precursor for which coenzymes in energy metabolism?

FAD and FMN

88
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Which statement best describes vitamins in animal nutrition?

Needed in minute amounts; regulate metabolism/energy transformations

89
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Regarding vitamin K absorption, which is correct?

Phylloquinone needs active transport; menaquinone/menadione diffuse passively

90
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Pantothenic acid is essential because it forms:

Coenzyme A (CoA) for acetyl-CoA and acyl carrier protein

91
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Which species have low efficiency of cutaneous vitamin D synthesis and thus need a dietary source?

Cats and Dogs

92
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Which grouping lists only fat-soluble vitamins?

A, D, E, K

93
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Cholecalciferol is the chemical name for:

Vitamin D3

94
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A hallmark sign of vitamin A deficiency is:

Night blindness

95
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Biotin primarily acts as a coenzyme for:

Carboxylases (e.g., acetyl-CoA carboxylase; pyruvate carboxylase)

96
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A classic deficiency sign of pantothenic acid mentioned in the text is:

Goose stepping

97
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Which situation can precipitate biotin deficiency?

Feeding raw egg whites (avidin)

98
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Tocopherols (vitamin E) primarily function as:

Lipid-phase antioxidants; alpha-tocopherol is most active

99
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Menadione is:

Synthetic vitamin K3

100
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In enzymology, a coenzyme is best defined as a(n):

Non-protein organic molecule that assists enzyme activity