Protozoan & Helminthic Parasites – Lecture Review

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These flashcards cover definitions, life cycles, transmission routes, clinical manifestations, laboratory features, and treatments for the major protozoan and related parasites discussed in the lecture notes. They are structured in a question-and-answer format to aid active recall while studying.

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108 Terms

1
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What is a single-celled protozoan called?

Protozoa

2
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What is a multi-celled parasitic organism called?

Helminth

3
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Which protozoan group moves by pseudopods?

Amoebas

4
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What is the infective stage of most intestinal amoebas?

Cyst

5
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What is the primary mode of transmission for amoebic cysts?

Ingestion of contaminated food or water

6
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Where does encystation of amoebas usually occur in humans?

The intestine

7
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Which amoebic life-stage is fragile, motile, and divides by binary fission?

Trophozoite

8
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Which stool consistency is most likely to contain trophozoites?

Liquid or soft stool

9
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Which laboratory technique lets you view living trophozoites in fresh stool?

Wet mount (plus permanent stain for confirmation)

10
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Why can amoebic cysts remain infectious for long periods in feces?

They are environmentally resistant and viable outside the host

11
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Which parasite causes intestinal amoebiasis and extra-intestinal disease?

Entamoeba histolytica

12
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Name the two main life-stages of Entamoeba histolytica and their roles.

Cyst – infective, dormant, resistant; Trophozoite – motile, feeding, tissue-damaging

13
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How does Entamoeba histolytica reproduce inside the host?

By binary fission in the trophozoite stage

14
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State two modes of transmission for Entamoeba histolytica.

Ingesting mature cysts in food/water or hand-to-mouth contact with feces

15
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What is excystation in E. histolytica?

Conversion of an ingested cyst into eight trophozoites in the small intestine

16
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List four common symptoms of intestinal amoebiasis.

Diarrhea, abdominal pain, weight loss, fatigue (severe: bloody dysentery)

17
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What is extra-intestinal amoebiasis?

Spread of E. histolytica beyond the gut, especially to the liver, causing abscesses

18
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Which drugs are recommended for asymptomatic E. histolytica infection?

Paromomycin or Diloxanide furoate

19
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Why is boiling water preferred over chlorination against E. histolytica?

Cysts are chlorine-resistant; boiling or iodine treatment kills them

20
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What two microscopic structures are seen in young E. histolytica cysts?

Chromatoidal bars and a glycogen mass

21
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Define venereal amoebiasis.

Sexual transmission of E. histolytica, e.g., penile infection from vaginal amoebiasis

22
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Which non-pathogenic amoeba is morphologically identical to E. histolytica?

Entamoeba dispar

23
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What distinguishes Entamoeba hartmanni from E. histolytica?

Smaller size, nonpathogenic, non-progressive motility, no ingested RBCs

24
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Describe the motility of Entamoeba hartmanni trophozoites.

Slow, non-progressive movement using finger-shaped pseudopodia

25
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Why is finding Entamoeba coli in stool clinically useful?

Indicates fecal contamination and poor sanitation though nonpathogenic

26
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Which amoeba is linked to pig exposure and common in Papua New Guinea?

Entamoeba polecki

27
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What drug combination treats Entamoeba polecki infection if required?

Metronidazole plus Diloxanide furoate

28
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What identifying feature is typical of Endolimax nana cysts?

Four nuclei in the mature cyst

29
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How is Iodamoeba bütschlii recognized microscopically?

A single nucleus and large glycogen vacuole in the cyst

30
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Which amoeba lacks a cyst stage and may ingest WBCs?

Entamoeba gingivalis

31
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How is Entamoeba gingivalis most often transmitted?

Mouth-to-mouth contact, droplets, or shared utensils

32
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What free-living amoeba causes Primary Amoebic Meningoencephalitis (PAM)?

Naegleria fowleri

33
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How does Naegleria fowleri enter the human body?

Through the nose during water activities in warm, contaminated water

34
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Name two early symptoms of PAM.

Fever and headache (plus sore throat, nausea, vomiting)

35
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What is the effective drug for PAM?

Amphotericin B (often with Miconazole)

36
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Which amoeba causes Acanthamoeba keratitis and GAE?

Acanthamoeba spp.

37
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What is a typical symptom of Acanthamoeba keratitis?

Severe eye pain, redness, and potential vision loss

38
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What medication is preferred for Acanthamoeba infections?

Propamidine (Brolene)

39
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What distinctive structures help Acanthamoeba move?

Acanthopodia (spiny pseudopods)

40
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Which stain aids laboratory detection of Acanthamoeba cysts?

Calcofluor white

41
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What flagellate causes giardiasis?

Giardia intestinalis (G. lamblia)

42
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How is Giardia intestinalis transmitted?

Ingestion of water or food containing cysts

43
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Where does excystation of Giardia occur?

Duodenum (small intestine)

44
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What organelle allows Giardia trophozoites to adhere to the gut lining?

Sucking (adhesive) disk

45
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Give two classic symptoms of giardiasis.

Steatorrhea and abdominal cramps (plus diarrhea, malabsorption)

46
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Which drugs effectively treat giardiasis?

Tinidazole or Nitazoxanide

47
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Why are Giardia cysts resistant to chlorine?

Their tough outer wall protects against normal chlorination levels

48
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What is the transmission route of Chilomastix mesnili?

Ingesting contaminated food, water, or hand-to-mouth contact

49
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Where does Chilomastix mesnili encyst?

In the large intestine

50
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What phenomenon in Dientamoeba fragilis shows granules in Brownian motion?

Hakansson phenomenon

51
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Which drug treats Dientamoeba fragilis infection?

Iodoquinol

52
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Name one preventive measure against Dientamoeba fragilis.

Good personal hygiene (others: proper sanitation, safe sex)

53
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Which Trichomonas species infects the intestine?

Trichomonas hominis

54
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How is Trichomonas hominis transmitted?

Fecal-oral route or ingestion of contaminated milk

55
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Which Trichomonas species inhabits the mouth?

Trichomonas tenax

56
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Which Trichomonas causes sexually transmitted vaginitis/urethritis?

Trichomonas vaginalis

57
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List two symptoms of T. vaginalis infection in women.

Foul-smelling green-yellow discharge and itching/burning

58
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What drug is standard therapy for Trichomonas vaginalis?

Metronidazole (Flagyl)

59
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What are hemoflagellates?

Flagellated protozoa (Leishmania, Trypanosoma) that infect blood/tissues

60
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Name the four morphological forms of hemoflagellates.

Amastigote, Promastigote, Epimastigote, Trypomastigote

61
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Which form of Leishmania is infective to humans?

Promastigote (in sandfly bite)

62
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Which diagnostic stage of Leishmania is found in human tissue?

Amastigote inside macrophages

63
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What disease is produced by the Leishmania braziliensis complex?

Mucocutaneous leishmaniasis (espundia)

64
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Which sandfly genera transmit L. braziliensis complex parasites?

Lutzomyia and Psychodopygus

65
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What is the key symptom of mucocutaneous leishmaniasis?

Large destructive ulcers of nose, mouth, or throat

66
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What antimonial drug treats cutaneous and mucocutaneous leishmaniasis?

Sodium stibogluconate (Pentostam)

67
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Which Leishmania complex causes visceral leishmaniasis (Kala-azar)?

Leishmania donovani complex

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What screening test is used for visceral leishmaniasis in populations?

Montenegro skin test

69
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Which drug is first-line for visceral leishmaniasis?

Amphotericin B (liposomal)

70
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What disease does the Leishmania mexicana complex produce?

New World cutaneous leishmaniasis (Chiclero ulcer)

71
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Which Leishmania complex causes Old World cutaneous lesions called Oriental sores?

Leishmania tropica complex

72
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What insect transmits Trypanosoma brucei gambiense?

Tsetse fly (Glossina palpalis or G. tachinoides)

73
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What disease is caused by T. b. gambiense?

West African Sleeping Sickness

74
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What symptom is called Winterbottom’s sign?

Posterior cervical lymph node enlargement in T. b. gambiense

75
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Which drug treats late-stage African trypanosomiasis with CNS involvement?

Melarsoprol (others: Eflornithine, Suramin, Pentamidine)

76
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What disease does Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense cause?

East African Sleeping Sickness

77
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Which insect transmits Trypanosoma cruzi?

Reduviid (kissing) bugs

78
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Name two hallmark signs of acute Chagas disease.

Chagoma at bite site and Romana’s sign (periorbital swelling)

79
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What medication is used for Chagas disease?

Nifurtimox

80
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Which protozoan genera infect red blood cells?

Plasmodium and Babesia

81
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What is the infective stage of Plasmodium to humans?

Sporozoite injected by Anopheles mosquito

82
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During which fever phase should blood be drawn for malaria diagnosis?

During paroxysms (cold, hot, or sweating stage)

83
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Which Plasmodium species causes quartan malaria?

Plasmodium malariae

84
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Which Plasmodium species is most dangerous due to cerebral involvement?

Plasmodium falciparum

85
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What malaria complication is known as Blackwater fever?

Hemoglobinuria and renal failure in P. falciparum infection

86
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Which drug class is first-line for Plasmodium knowlesi infection?

Artemisinin-based therapy

87
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What tick-borne protozoan causes babesiosis?

Babesia spp.

88
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Which diagnostic clue in blood smear suggests Babesia?

Maltese-cross arrangement of merozoites without malarial pigment

89
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Which Babesia species is severe in splenectomised patients in Europe?

Babesia divergens

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What is the standard treatment for human babesiosis?

Clindamycin plus Quinine or Atovaquone plus Azithromycin

91
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What ciliate parasite causes balantidiasis?

Balantidium coli

92
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What is the main reservoir animal for Balantidium coli?

Pigs

93
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Which coccidian parasite causes chronic diarrhea diagnosed by acid-fast oocysts?

Isospora (Cystoisospora) belli

94
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What drug combination treats isosporiasis?

Trimethoprim-Sulfamethoxazole (SXT)

95
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How do humans acquire Sarcocystis hominis as definitive hosts?

Eating undercooked beef or pork containing sarcocysts

96
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Which protozoan causes self-limiting watery diarrhea and has oocysts lacking sporocysts?

Cryptosporidium parvum

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How is Cyclospora cayetanensis usually transmitted?

Consumption of contaminated fresh produce (e.g., lettuce, berries)

98
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What is the definitive host of Toxoplasma gondii?

Cats

99
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Name the rapidly dividing stage of Toxoplasma gondii responsible for acute disease.

Tachyzoite

100
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Which drug combination treats toxoplasmosis?

Pyrimethamine plus Sulfadiazine with folinic acid