Airway clearance therapy

A normal cough reflex includes which of the following phases?
1. irritation
2. inspiration
3. compression
4. expulsion
a.1, 2,3
b.1 and 4
C.1, 2, 3, and 4
d. 2 and 3

C

2.
Which of the following is/are necessary for normal airway clearance?
1. patent airway
2. functional mucociliary escalator
3. effective cough
a.1 and 2
b.1.2.3
c. 2 and 3
d.2

B

3.
Which of the following can provoke a cough?
1. anesthesia
2. foreign bodies
3. infection
4. irritating gases
a.2 and 4
b. 1, 2, and 3
C.3 and 4
d. 2, 3, and 4

D

4.
Which of the following occur(s) during the compression phase of a cough?
1. expiratory muscle contraction
2. opening of the glottis
3. rapid drop in alveolar pressure
a.1 and 2
b. 2 and 3
C. 1 and 3
d.1

D

5. Retention of secretions can result in full or partial airway obstruction. Mucus plugging can
result in which of the following?
1. hypoxemia
2. atelectasis
3. Shunting
a. 1, 2, and 3
b.1 and 2
C.1 and 3
d.2 and 3

A

6. Partial airway obstruction can result in all of the following except:
a.increased work of breathing
b. air-trapping or overdistention
C.increased expiratory flows
d.ventilation/perfusion ratio

C

7
A patient with abdominal muscle weakness is having difficulty developing an effective cough
Which of the following phases of the cough reflex are primarily affected in this patient?
1. irritation
2. inspiration
3. compression
4. expulsion
a. 1, 2, and 3
b. 2 and 4
C.2, 3, and 4
d. 3 and 4

D

8. A patient recovering from anesthesia after abdominal surgery is having difficulty developing
an effective cough. Which of the following phases of the cough reflex are primarily affected
in this patient?
a.irritation
b. inspiration
C.compression
d.expulsion

A

9. A patient with a tracheostomy tube is having difficulty developing an effective cough. Which
of the following phases of the cough reflex are primarily affected in this patient?
a. irritation
b. inspiration
C.compression
d.expulsion

C

10. A patient with a neuromuscular disorder causing generalized muscle weakness is having
difficulty developing an effective cough. Which of the following cough phases are primarily
affected in this patient?
a. irritation
b. inspiration
C.compression
d. expulsion

B

All of the following can impair mucociliary clearance in intubated patients except:
a.use of respiratory stimulants
b. tracheobronchial suctioning
C.inadequate humidification
d. high inspired oxygen concentrations

A

12.
All of the following drug categories can impair mucociliary clearance in intubated patients
except:
a. general anesthetics
b. bronchodilators
C.opiates
d.narcotics

B

13. Conditions that can affect airway patency and cause abnormal clearance of secretions include
which of the following?
1. foreign bodies
2. tumors
3. inflammation
4. bronchospasm
a.1, 2, and 3
b.2 and 4
C.2, 3, and 4
d.1, 2, 3, and 4

D

14. Which of the following conditions alter normal mucociliary clearance?
1. bronchospasm
2. cystic fibrosis (CF)
3. ciliary dyskinesia
a.1, 2, and 3
b.1 and 2
C.1 and 3
d.2 and 3

D

15. Conditions that can lead to bronchiectasis include all of the following except:
a.chronic airway infection
b.muscular dystrophy
C.foreign body aspiration
d. obliterative bronchiolitis

B

10.
All of the following conditions impair secretion clearance by affecting the cough reflex
except:
a.muscular dystrophy
b.amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
C.chronic bronchitis
d.cerebral palsy

C

17. All of the following are goals of airway clearance therapy except:
a. Reverse the underlying disease process.
b.Help mobilize retained secretion.
C.Improve pulmonary gas exchange.
d.Reduce the work of breathing.

A

18. Which of the following acutely ill patients is LEAST likely to benefit from application of
chest physical therapy?
a. patient with acute lobar atelectasis
b.patient with copious amounts of secretions
C.patient with an acute exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
(COPD)
d.patient with low V/Q due to unilateral infiltrates

C

19. Which of the following conditions are associated with chronic production of large volumes of
sputum?
1. bronchiectasis
2. pulmonary
3. cystic fibrosis
4. chronic bronchitis
a.1, 3, and 4
b.2 and 4
C.1, 2, 3, and 4
d. 3 and 4

A

20. In general, chest physical therapy can be expected to improve airway clearance when a
patient's sputum production exceeds what volume?
a. 30 ml/day
b.20 ml/day
C.15 ml/day
d.10 ml/day

A

21.
Which of the following measures would you use to ask patients for the presence of copious
mucus production?
a.1 pint
b.1 ounce
C.1 gallon
d.1 tablespoon

B

22. What are the best documented preventive uses of airway clearance therapy?
1. Prevent retained secretions in the acutely ill.
2. Maintain lung function in cystic fibrosis.
3. Prevent postoperative pulmonary complications.
a.1. 2, and 3
b.1 and 2
C.1 and 3
d.2 and 3

B

23.
When assessing the potential need for postoperative airway clearance for a patient, all of the
following factors are relevant except:
a.patient's age and respiratory history
b.nature and duration of current surgery
C.number of prior surgical procedures
d. type of anesthesia (e.g., local versus general)

C

24
All of the following laboratory data are essential in assessing a patient's need for airway
clearance therapy except:
a.chest radiograph
b. pulmonary function tests (PFTs)
C.hematology results
d.ABGs/oxygen saturation

C

Key considerations in initial and ongoing patient assessment for chest physical therapy
include which of the following?
1. posture and muscle tone
2. breathing pattern and ability to cough
3. sputum production
4. cardiovascular stability
a.1, 2, and 3
b.2 and 4
C.1, 2, 3, and 4
d. 3 and 4

C

26.
Which of the following clinical signs indicate that a patient is having a problem with retained
secretions?
1. lack of sputum production
2. labored breathing
3. development of a fever
4. increased inspiratory and expiratory crackles
a.2 and 4
b.1, 2, and 3
C.3 and 4
d. 1, 2, 3, and 4

D

27. All of the following are considered airway clearance therapies except:
a. postural drainage and percussion
b. incentive spirometry
c. positive airway pressure
d. percussion, vibration, and oscillation

B

28. The application of gravity to achieve specific clinical objectives in respiratory care best
describes which of the following?
a.breathing exercises
b. postural drainage therapy
c. hyperinflation therapy
d.directed coughing

B

29. Postural drainage should be considered in all of the following situations except:
a.in patients with chronic obstructive lung disease
b.in patients who expectorate more than 25 to 30 ml sputum per day
C.in the presence of atelectasis caused by mucus plugging
d. in patients with cystic fibrosis or bronchiectasis

A

30. Absolute contraindications for postural drainage include which of the following?
1. head and neck injury (until stabilized)
2. active hemorrhage with hemodynamic instability
3. uncontrolled airway at risk for aspiration
a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 3
C.1 and 3
d.1, 2, and 3

A

31.
Which of the following is NOT a hazard or complication of postural drainage therapy?
a.cardiac arrhythmias
b. increased intracranial pressure
C.acute hypotension
d.pulmonary barotraumas

D

32.
Primary objectives for turning include all of the following except to:
a. prevent postural hypotension
b. promote lung expansion
c.prevent retention of secretions
d.improve oxygenation

A

33.
Which if the following is the only absolute contraindication to turning?
a.when the patient cannot or will not change body position
b. when poor oxygenation is associated with unilateral lung disease
C.when the patient has or is at high risk for atelectasis
d.when the patient has unstable spinal cord injuries

D

34.
Which of the following is/are TRUE of postural drainage?
1. It is most effective in disorders causing excessive sputum.
2. It is most effective in head-down positions greater than 25 degrees.
3. It requires adequate systemic hydration to be effective.
4. It improves mucociliary clearance in normal subjects.
5. It improves pulmonary function in stable chronic obstructive pulmonary disease patients.
a.2 and 4
b.1, 2, and 3
C.3 and 5
d.1,2,and 4
d.1, 2, and 4

B

35. In which of the following patients would you consider modifying any head-down positions
used for postural drainage?
1. a patient with unstable blood pressure
2. a patient with a cerebrovascular disorder
3. a patient with systemic hypertension
4. a patient with orthopnea
a.1, 2, 3, and 4
b.2 and 4
C.2, 3, and 4
d. 2 and 4

A

36. In setting up a postural drainage treatment schedule for a postoperative patient, which of the
following information would you try to obtain from the patient's nurse?
1. patient's medication schedule
2. patient's meal schedule
3. location of surgical incision
a.1 and 2
b.2 and 3
C.1 and 3
d.1, 2, and 3

D

37. A patient about to receive postural drainage and percussion is attached to an
electrocardiographic (ECG) monitor and is receiving both intravenous (IV) solutions and Oz
(through a nasal cannula). Which of the following actions would be appropriate for this
patient?
a.Cancel the therapy because the patient cannot be repositioned
b.Inspect and adjust the equipment to ensure function during therapy.
C.Turn off the ECG monitor, but keep the IV line and O2 going.
d.Turn off the IV line, but keep the monitor on and the Oz going.

B

38. Which of the following are mandatory components of the preassessment for postural
drainage?
1. vital signs
2. bedside pulmonary
3. auscultation
a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 4
C.1 and 3
d.1, 2, and 3

C

39. If a patient's chest radiograph shows infiltrates in the posterior basal segments of the lower
lobes, what postural drainage position would you recommend?
a. head down, patient supine with a pillow under knees
b. patient prone with a pillow under head, bed flat
C.patient supine with a pillow under knees, bed flat
d.head down, patient prone with a pillow under abdomen

D

40. A physician orders postural drainage for a patient with an abscess in the right middle lobe.
Which of the following positions would you recommend for this patient?
a. head down, patient prone with a pillow under abdomen
b. head down, patient supine with a pillow under knees
C.patient supine with a pillow under knees, bed flat
d.head down, patient half-rotated to left, right lung up

D

41.
A physician orders postural drainage for a patient with aspiration pneumonia in the superior
segments of the left lower lobe. Which of the following positions would you recommend for
this patient?
a. patient prone with a pillow under abdomen, bed flat
b. head down, patient prone with a pillow under abdomen
C.head down, patient supine with a pillow under knees
d. patient supine with a pillow under knees, bed flat

A

42.
A physician orders postural drainage for a patient with aspiration pneumonia in the anterior
segments of the upper lobes. Which of the following positions would you recommend for this
patient?
a.head down, patient prone with a pillow under abdomen
b. patient supine with a pillow under knees, bed flat
C.head down, patient supine with a pillow under knees
d. patient prone with a pillow under abdomen, bed flat

B

43. If tolerated, a specified postural drainage position should be maintained for at least how long?
a.1 to 2 minutes
b.3 to 5 minutes
C.20 to 30 minutes
d 3 to 15 minutes

D

44.
While reviewing the chart of a patient receiving postural drainage therapy, you notice that the
patient tends to undergo mild desaturation during therapy (a drop in SpO2 from 93% to 89%
to 90%). Which of the following would you recommend to manage this problem?
a.Increase the patient's FIO, during therapy.
b.Discontinue the postural drainage therapy entirely.
C.Discontinue the percussion and vibration only.
d.Decrease the frequency of treatments.

A

45.
Why is strenuous patient coughing during postural drainage in a head-down position
contraindicated?
a.It can impair the mucociliary clearance mechanism.
b.It can increase expiratory airway resistance (Raw).
C.It can cause air trapping and pulmonary distension.
d. It can markedly increase intracranial pressure (ICP).

D

46
Soon after you initiate postural drainage in a Trendelenburg position, the patient develops a
vigorous and productive cough. Which of the following actions would be appropriate at this
time?
a. Maintain the drainage position while carefully watching the patient.
b.Move the patient to the sitting position until the cough subsides.
c. Stop the treatment at once and report the incident to the nurse.
d. Drop the head of the bed farther and encourage more coughing.

B

47. All of the following would indicate a successful outcome for postural drainage therapy except:
a.decreased sputum production
b.normalization in ABGs
c. improved breath sounds
d. improvement in chest radiograph

A

48. All of the following responses indicate that postural drainage should be terminated except:
a. severe tachycardia
b. complaint of discomfort
C.irregular blood pressure
d. severe bradycardia

B

49. Which of the following should be charted after completing a postural drainage treatment?
1. amount and consistency of sputum produced
2. patient tolerance of procedure
3. position(s) used (including time)
4. any untoward effects observed
a.1, 2, and 3
b.2 and 4
C.1, 2, 3, and 4
d. 3 and 4

C

50. Percussion should NOT be performed over which of the following areas?
1. surgery sites
2. bony prominences
3. fractured ribs
a.3
b.1 and 2
C.2 and 3
d. 1, 2, and 3

D

51. Properly performed chest vibration is applied at what point?
a.throughout inspiration
b. at the end of expiration
C.at the start of inspiration
d. throughout expiration

D

52. Directed coughing is useful in helping to maintain airway clearance in all of the following
cases except:
a. bronchiectasis
b. acute asthma
C.cystic fibrosis
d.spinal cord injury

B

53. Indications for directed coughing include all of the following except to:
a.
enhance other airway clearance therapies
b. help patients with tuberculosis clear secretions
C.help prevent postoperative pulmonary complications
d. obtain sputum specimens for diagnostic analysis

B

54. All of the following are contraindications for directed coughing except the presence of:
a. infection spread by droplet nuclei
b. elevated intracranial pressure or intracranial aneurysm
c. reduced coronary artery perfusion
d. necrotizing pulmonary infection

D

55. For which of the following patients directed coughing might be contraindicated?
1. patient with poor coronary artery perfusion
2. postoperative upper-abdominal surgery patient
3. long-term care patient with retained secretions
4. patient with an acute unstable spinal injury
a.2 and 3
b.1, 2, and 3
C.1 and 4
d.2,3, and 4

C

56. What factors can hinder effective coughing?
1. artificial airways
2. neuromuscular disease
3. systemic dehydration
of 30
Test bank
40-18
4. pain or fear of pain
5. use of expectorants
a. 1, 2, and 4
b. 2, 4, and 5
C.1, 2, 3, and 4
d.1, 2, 3, 4, and 5

C

57. Key consideration in teaching a patient to develop an effective cough regimen includes which
of the following?
1. strengthening of the expiratory muscles
2. instruction in breathing control
3. instruction in proper positioning
a.2 and 3
b.1 and 2
C.1, 2, and 3
d.1 and 3

C

58. What is the ideal patient position for directed coughing?
a. sitting with one shoulder rotated inward, the head and spine slightly flexed
b. supine, with knees slightly flexed and feet braced
C.prone, with the head and spine slightly flexed
d. supine, with forearms relaxed and feet supported

A

59. A patient recovering from abdominal surgery is having difficulty developing an effective
cough. Which of the following actions would you recommend to aid this patient in generating
a more effective cough?
1. coordinating coughing with pain medication
2. using the forced expiration technique (FET)
3. supplying manual epigastric compression
4.
"splinting" the operative site
a.1, 2, and 4
b.1, 2, and 3
C.3 and 4
d.2, 3, and 4

A

60. Strenuous expiratory efforts in some chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) patients
limit the effectiveness of coughing. Why is this so?
a. The accessory muscles of inspiration oppose the exhalation.
b.All COP patients have severe abdominal muscle weakness.
c. High expiratory pleural pressures compress the small airways.
d. Strenuous expiration causes the upper airway to collapse.

d. Strenuous expiration causes the upper airway to collapse.

C

61. A chronic obstructive pulmonary disease patient cannot develop an effective cough. Which of
the following would you recommend to help this patient generate a more effective cough?
1. enhancing expiratory flow by bending forward at the waist
2. using short, expiratory bursts or the "huffing" method
3. using only moderate (as opposed to full) inspiration
4. having the patient "tense" the neck muscles while coughing
a. 2 and 4
b. 1,2, and 3
C.3 and 4
d.1, 2, and 4

B

62. A nurse explains to you that a certain neuromuscular patient cannot develop a good cough.
Which of the following would you consider to manage this patient's clearance problem?
1. combining manual chest compression with suctioning
2. coordinating the coughing regimen with pain medication
3. using the autogenic drainage method
4. using mechanical insufflation-exsufflation
a.1 and 4
b. 1.2. and 3
C.2 and 3
d.1, 2, and 4

A

63.
Which of the following is false about the FET?
a. It causes less bronchiolar collapse than traditional coughing.
b. It occurs from mid to low lung volume without glottis closure.
c. It has a period of diaphragmatic breathing and relaxation.
d.It occurs from mid to high lung volume without glottis closure.

D

64. Maintaining an open glottis during coughing (as with the FET) can help to minimize increases
in pleural pressure and lessen the likelihood of bronchiolar collapse. Which of the following
techniques can aid the practitioner in teaching the patient this maneuver?
a. having the patient inhale slowly through the nose
b. having the patient phonate or "huff" during expiration
c. having the patient "tense" the neck muscles while coughing
d. telling the patient to exert effort, as in straining at stool

B

65. Whether using traditional methods or the FET, a period of diaphragmatic breathing and
relaxation should always follow attempts at coughing. What is the purpose of this approach?
a.to restore the patient's SO2
b. to restore lung volume and minimize fatigue
C.to allow the patient time to ask questions
d. to decrease the likelihood of acute air-trapping

B

66
What is the correct sequence of actions during the active cycle of breathing (ACB) method?
1. relaxation and breathing control
2. three or four thoracic expansion exercises
3. one or two FETs (huffs)
a. 1.2. 1, and 3
b. 1, 3, 1, and 2
c. 3, 1, 2, and 1
d.1. 3. 2. and 1

A

67. During autogenic drainage, when should patients be encouraged to cough?
a.throughout the procedure
b. after phase 1 only
C.after phase 2 only
d.after phase 3 only

D

68.
What does phase 1 of autogenic drainage involve?
a. breathing at low to mid-lung volumes
b.an inspiratory capacity maneuver, followed by breathing at low lung volumes
C.vigorous coughing using the FET
d. progressive breaths at higher and higher lung volumes

B

69. What happens during the exsufflation phase of mechanical insufflation-exsufflation?
1. Airway pressure is abruptly decreased to -30 to -50 cm H2O.
2. Negative airway pressure is maintained for 2 to 3 seconds.
3. Peak expiratory
"cough" flows reach near normal values.
a.1 and 2
b.2 and 3
C.1 and 3
d.1, 2, and 3

D

70. A typical mechanical insufflation-exsufflation treatment session should continue until what
point?
1. Secretions are cleared.
2. The vital capacity (VC) returns to baseline.
3. The SpO2 returns to baseline.
a.2 and 3
b. 1 and 2
C.1. 2. and 3
d.1 and 3

C

71.
Under which of the following conditions would mechanical insufflation-exsufflation with an
oronasal mask probably NOT be effective?
1. if the glottis collapses during exsufflation
2. presence of fixed airway obstruction
3. presence of a chronic neuromuscular disorder
a. 2 and 3
b.1 and 2
c. 1.2. and 3
d.1 and 3

B

72. Which of the following are potential indications for positive airway pressure therapies?
1. reduce air-trapping in asthma or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
2. help mobilize retained secretions
3. prevent or reverse atelectasis
4. optimize bronchodilator delivery
a. 2 and 4
b. 1.2, and 3
C.3 and 4
d.1, 2, 3, and 4

D

73.
Contraindications for positive airway pressure therapies include all of the following except:
a. intracranial pressure exceeding 20 mm Hg
b. recent facial, oral, or skull surgery or trauma
C.preexisting pulmonary barotrauma (e.g., pneumothorax)
d.air-trapping/pulmonary overdistention in chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

D

74. All of the following are hazards of positive airway pressure therapies (EPAP, PEP, CPAP)
except:
a.decreased venous return
b.epistaxis
C.pulmonary barotrauma
d. increased intracranial pressure

B

75. Hazards of positive airway pressure therapies associated with the apparatus used include
which of the following?
1. increased work of breathing
2. claustrophobia
3. epistaxis
4. vomiting and aspiration
5. skin breakdown and discomfort
a. 1, 3, and 4
b.2, 3, 4, and 5
C.1 2 3 4 and 5
d.3,4 and 5

C

76. A physician orders positive expiratory pressure therapy for a 14-year-old child with cystic
fibrosis. All of the following responses should be monitored on this patient except:
a.peak flow or forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV,) per forced vital capacity
percentage
b. patient's minute volume
C.quantity and character of sputum
d. breath sounds

B

77.
Which of the following best describes positive expiratory pressure (PEP) therapy?
a.expiration against a variable flow resistance
b.expiration against a fixed threshold resistance
C.inspiration against a variable flow resistance
d inspiration against a fixed threshold resistance

A

78. In theory, how does positive expiratory pressure (PEP) help to move secretions into the larger
airways?
1. filling underaerated segments through collateral ventilation
2. preventing airway collapse during expiration
3. causing bronchodilation during inspiration
a. 2 and 3
b.1 and 2
C.1 2 and 3
D 1 and 3

B

79. Proper instructions for positive expiratory pressure include all of the following except:
a. Take in a breath that is larger than normal, but do not fill lungs completely.
b. Exhale forcefully and maintain an expiratory pressure of 10 to 20 cm HO.
C.After 10 to 20 breaths, take two or three "huff" coughs, and rest as needed
d. Repeat the cycle 4 to 8 times, not to exceed 20 minutes.

B

80.
A physician orders bronchodilator drug therapy in combination with positive expiratory
pressure (PEP). Which of the following methods could you use to provide this combined
therapy?
1. Attach a dry powder inhaler in-line with the PEP apparatus.
2. Attach a metered-dose inhaler to the system's one-way valve inlet.
3. Place a small-volume nebulizer in-line with the PEP apparatus
a. 2 and 3
b.1 and 2
c. 1. 2. and 3
d 1 and 3
d. 1 and 3

A

81. What is the movement of small volumes of air back and forth in the respiratory tract at high
frequencies (12 to 25 Hz) called?
a.tidal breathing
b.active cycle breathing
C.oscillation
d. huffing

C

82. Which of the following parts are required to conduct high-frequency external chest wall
compression?
1. variable air-pulse generator
2. expiratory flow resistor with one-way valve
3. nonstretch inflatable thoracic vest
a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 3
C.1 and 3
d.1, 2, and 3

C

83. All of the following are typical of high-frequency external chest wall compression therapy
except:
a. 30-minute therapy sessions
b.. oscillations at 5 to 25 Hz
C.one to six sessions per day
d.long inspiratory oscillations

D

84.
Which of the following determines effectiveness of high-frequency external chest wall
compression therapy?
Copvright © 2013. 2009. 2003, 1999. 1995, 1990, 1982, 1977, 1973, 1969 by Mosby, an imprint of Elsevier Inc.
Test bank
1. compression frequency
2. largest volumes
3. flow bias
a. 1
b. 2
C.1 and 3
d.2 and 3

C

85. The airway clearance technique that uses a pneumatic device to deliver compressed gas
minibursts to the airway at rates above 100/min best describes which of the following?
a.intrapulmonary percussive ventilation
b. active cycle of breathing
c. high-frequency external chest wall compression
d. intermittent positive-pressure breathing

D

86.
Which of the following is true about exercise and airway clearance?
1. Exercise can enhance mucus clearance.
2. Exercise can improve pulmonary function.
3. Exercise can improve V/Q matching.
4. Exercise can cause desaturation in some patients.
a.1, 3, and 4
b. 1, 2, and 3
C.1, 2, 3, and 4
d.2, 3, and 4

C

87. Patients can control a flutter valve's pressure by changing what?
a. their inspiratory flow
b.the angle of the device
c. their expiratory flow
d. the expired volume

C

88.
Advantages of the flutter valve over other airway clearance methods include all of the
following except:
a. good patient acceptance
b. greater effectiveness
C.full portability
d. independent use

B

89. Which of the following is not an advantage of the Acapella over the flutter?
a. It can customize frequency.
b. It can be used in any posture.
C.It is more portable.
d. It can customize flow resistance.

C

90. Which of the following should be considered when selecting a airway clearance strategy?
1. patient's goals, motivation, and preferences
2. effectiveness and limitations of technique or method
3. patient's age, ability to learn, and tendency to fatigue
4. need for assistants, equipment, and cost
a.1, 2, and 3
b.1. 3, and 4
C.2 and 3
d. 1,2,3, and 4

D

91. Which of the following airway clearance techniques would you recommend for a 15-month-
old infant with cystic fibrosis?
a. postural drainage, percussion, and vibration
b. positive expiratory pressure therapy
C.mechanical insufflation-exsufflation
d.intrapulmonary percussive ventilation

A

92. Which of the following airway clearance techniques would you recommend for a patient with
a neurologic abnormality (bulbar palsy) and intact upper airway?
1. postural drainage, percussion, and vibration
2. positive expiratory pressure therapy
3. mechanical insufflation-exsufflation
a.2 and 3
b.1 and 2
C.1, 2, and 3
d.1 and 3

D

93. In assessing an adult outpatient for airway clearance therapy, you notice the following: (1) no
history of cystic fibrosis or bronchiectasis, (2) sputum production of 30 to 50 ml/day, (3) an
effective cough, and (4) good hydration. Which of the following would you recommend?
a. postural drainage, percussion, and vibration
b.positive expiratory pressure therapy
C.mechanical insufflation-exsufflation
d.intrapulmonary percussive ventilation

B

94. Which of the following is the most appropriate airway clearance method for an infant with
cystic fibrosis?
a.PDPV
b.MIE
C.PEP
d.exercise

A

95. What duration of time and pressure is recommended when using MIE devices to clear airways
secretions in adults?
a.30 to 50 cm H2O at 1 to 3 seconds
b.10 to 30 cm H2O at 1 to 3 seconds
c. 30 to 50 cm H20 at 5 to 10 seconds
d. 10 to 30 cm H20 at 5 to 10 seconds

A