Techniques in DNA Technology – Review Flashcards

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A comprehensive set of question-and-answer flashcards covering the fundamentals, laboratory techniques, and applications presented in the DNA Technology lecture.

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53 Terms

1
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What is biotechnology?

The harnessing of natural biological processes of living systems for the benefit of humankind.

2
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Give two historical examples of traditional biotechnology.

Using yeast to make wine/bread and using bacteria to make cheese/beer.

3
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How does modern biotechnology differ from earlier practices?

It allows scientists to modify specific genes and move them between very different organisms (e.g., bacteria, plants, animals).

4
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What is genetic engineering (recombinant DNA technology)?

The process of manipulating and transferring genetic instructions (genes) from one cell or organism to another.

5
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List the general steps in a genetic-engineering workflow.

Sample preparation → Gel electrophoresis → PCR → Recombinant DNA & cloning → Sequencing.

6
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What is the purpose of DNA extraction?

To remove and purify DNA from cells so it can be analyzed or manipulated in vitro.

7
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Name three physical methods used to lyse cells during DNA extraction.

Bead beating, French press, sonication (or grinding with liquid nitrogen).

8
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Which chemical is commonly added to dissolve cell membranes during extraction?

Detergent/SDS (sodium dodecyl sulfate).

9
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Why are proteases such as proteinase K added during extraction?

To degrade DNA-associated proteins and other cellular proteins.

10
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How are proteins removed after lysis?

By adding salt (e.g., sodium acetate) followed by phenol-chloroform extraction and centrifugation.

11
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Why is cold ethanol or isopropanol added to the aqueous phase?

DNA is insoluble in alcohol; it precipitates so it can be pelleted and separated from contaminants.

12
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After precipitation, why is the DNA pellet washed again with alcohol?

To remove residual salts and impurities before final resuspension.

13
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How can the presence of extracted DNA be confirmed?

Run an agarose gel containing a fluorescent dye (e.g., ethidium bromide) and visualize under UV light.

14
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On what physical principle does gel electrophoresis separate DNA fragments?

DNA’s negative charge causes fragments to migrate toward the positive electrode; smaller pieces move faster through the gel’s pores.

15
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Why is agarose used in DNA electrophoresis?

It forms a porous semisolid matrix that acts as a sieve for DNA fragments of different sizes.

16
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What is the function of loading dye?

It adds color and density so samples sink into wells and migration can be visually monitored.

17
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What is a DNA ladder (marker) used for?

It provides DNA fragments of known sizes to estimate the lengths of sample fragments.

18
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Why is ethidium bromide used in gels, and what safety issue accompanies its use?

EtBr intercalates into DNA and fluoresces under UV light; UV exposure is harmful to eyes and skin.

19
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Define PCR (polymerase chain reaction).

An in-vitro technique that amplifies a specific DNA segment, creating millions-billions of copies.

20
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List the essential components required for a PCR reaction.

DNA template, forward and reverse primers, heat-stable DNA polymerase (Taq), dNTPs, MgCl₂, PCR buffer.

21
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State the three main temperature steps of PCR.

Denaturation (~94 °C), Annealing (~50–65 °C), Extension (~72 °C).

22
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Why is Taq polymerase crucial for PCR?

It is thermostable and can withstand the high denaturation temperature without denaturing itself.

23
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Approximately how many target DNA copies are produced after 30 PCR cycles?

Over one billion (≈2³⁰) copies.

24
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What is a primer in PCR?

A short single-stranded DNA oligonucleotide that provides a 3'-OH group for DNA polymerase to extend.

25
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Give two typical applications of PCR.

Producing DNA for cloning/sequencing and detecting pathogens or genetic mutations.

26
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What is a plasmid vector?

A small circular DNA molecule used to carry foreign DNA into a host cell for cloning.

27
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Which organism’s plasmids are most often used in cloning?

Escherichia coli (E. coli).

28
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What creates a recombinant DNA molecule?

Insertion of foreign DNA into a plasmid using restriction enzymes and DNA ligase.

29
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What is the role of restriction endonucleases in cloning?

They act as molecular scissors cutting DNA at specific sequences to generate compatible ends.

30
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What does DNA ligase do during cloning?

It covalently joins the sugar-phosphate backbones of DNA fragments, sealing nicks to create continuous DNA.

31
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What are sticky ends?

Single-stranded overhangs created by restriction enzyme cuts that facilitate base-pairing between vector and insert.

32
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State the two basic purposes of gene cloning.

To make many copies of a gene and to produce large amounts of its protein product.

33
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Name a therapeutic protein commonly produced in bacteria via recombinant DNA.

Human insulin.

34
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What is the ultimate goal of genome mapping projects?

Determining the complete nucleotide sequence of each chromosome.

35
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Which sequencing method is known as the chain-termination method and who developed it?

The Sanger dideoxynucleotide method, developed by Frederick Sanger.

36
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How does a dideoxyribonucleotide differ from a deoxyribonucleotide?

It lacks a 3'-OH group, causing DNA synthesis to terminate when incorporated.

37
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Why are fluorescent tags attached to ddNTPs in automated sequencing?

To identify the terminating nucleotide in each DNA fragment via laser detection.

38
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Outline the four key steps of Sanger sequencing.

1) Denature template & add primer, polymerase, dNTPs, fluorescent ddNTPs; 2) Random chain termination; 3) Capillary gel electrophoresis to separate fragments; 4) Laser detection and computational reading of sequence.

39
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How does capillary electrophoresis separate sequencing fragments?

Shorter fluorescent fragments move faster through the thin polymer matrix, allowing single-base resolution.

40
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What is human gene therapy?

Treatment that introduces functional genes into a patient’s cells, often via viral vectors, to cure genetic disorders.

41
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Why are bone-marrow cells good targets for retroviral gene therapy?

They continually reproduce, passing the therapeutic gene to descendant blood cells.

42
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List the main steps in producing recombinant human insulin.

Isolate insulin gene → Cut bacterial plasmid with restriction enzyme → Insert gene into plasmid → Transform bacteria → Grow in fermentation tank → Purify insulin.

43
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Give one environmental application of recombinant DNA technology.

Creating oil-degrading microorganisms to clean up oil spills.

44
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What is the goal of creating transgenic farm animals?

To enhance traits such as wool quality, growth rate, disease resistance, or to produce human proteins in milk.

45
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Why are some transgenic sheep called “pharm” animals?

They carry human genes and secrete therapeutic human proteins (e.g., anti-cystic-fibrosis enzyme inhibitor) in their milk.

46
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Which natural plant pathogen is commonly used to introduce new genes into plants?

Agrobacterium tumefaciens via its Ti plasmid.

47
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Give two examples of traits engineered into transgenic plants.

Herbicide resistance and pest resistance.

48
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What safety precaution must be taken when visualizing DNA with ethidium bromide?

Protect eyes and skin from harmful UV light used to excite EtBr fluorescence.

49
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How does adding MgCl₂ affect PCR?

Magnesium ions act as cofactors required for DNA polymerase activity and influence primer annealing specificity.

50
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What happens to the number of exact target DNA molecules by the end of the third PCR cycle?

One-fourth of the molecules correspond exactly to the target sequence (both strands correct length).

51
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Explain the purpose of using a power supply in gel electrophoresis.

It generates the electric field that drives negatively charged DNA fragments toward the positive electrode.

52
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Why do larger DNA fragments migrate more slowly through agarose gels?

They experience greater resistance moving through the gel’s pores compared to smaller fragments.

53
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In DNA extraction, why is the sample often resuspended in TE or Tris buffer?

To stabilize and store DNA in a pH-controlled solution that protects against degradation.