BRAINSTORMING

1. Enthesopathy except:
A. Scleroderma
B. Gouty arthritis
C. Reiter's syndrome
D. Psoriatic arthritis

A

2. A woman who is going to join a beauty pageant took diuretics to decrease weight. What should be observed?
A.CBC
B.WBC
C. Sodium and potassium

C

3. Perfectly matched causes of anemia(EXCEPT?)
A. Thalassemia - hereditary factor
B. Pernicious anemia - Vitamin B12 deficiency
C. Sickle cell anemia - radiation
D. Immunologic anemia - patient's own body

C

4. Medications for acute gout:
A. Colchicine
B. NSAIDs
C. Allopurinol
D. DMARDs

B

5. Non-erosive rheumatologic deformity in SLE:
A.Felty
B. Jaccoud's
C. Caplan
D. Sjogren's

B

6. The following increase gait speed, EXCEPT:
A. Decreased width of base of support
B. Increased stride length
C. Increased angle of toe-out

C

7. Amount of air additionaly inspired after tidal volume
A. Vital capacity
B. Inspiratory reserve volume
C. Inspiratory capacity
D. Residual volume

B.

8. Assistive device that allows 2-point, 3-point, and 4-point gait pattern:
A.Cane
B. Walker
C. Axillary crutches
D. Parallel bars

C

9. Dimension of a fitting room (minimum):
A. 20 sq ft
B. 30 sq ft
C. 40 sq ft
D. 50 sq ft

B

10. The following are characteristic of an ideal mattress overlay EXCEPT
A. 30 lbs. of 25% ILD (indentation Load Deflection)
B. Density of 1.3 lb/ft3.
C. Thickness of 3-4 inches.
D. Thickness of 1-2 inches

D

11. Can't support full weight on legs but does have reasonably good muscular coordination and arm strength, which crutch walking gait would you choose?
A. Four-point gait
B. Swing-through three-point gait
C. Three-point-and-one gait (partial-weight-bearing)
D. Three-point-gait (non-weight bearing)
E. Two-point gait

E

12. A patient presents with compensated right thoracic scoliosis, and left lumbar scoliosis. Which of the following would be expected?
A. Gibbus deformity on the ® thoracic region
B. Gibbus deformity on the (L) thoracic region
C. Prominent (L) chest
D. Higher (L) shoulder

A

13. Which of the following would not cause a pressure ulcer when sitting on a wheelchair?
A.Elbow
B. Scapula
C.Heel
D. Ischium

C

14. A 14- years old patient will be undergoing leg amputation, what amputation will you recommend?
A.Syme's
B. Above knee
C. Chopart's
D. Below knee

A

15. Patient has hemoptysis but presents with normal lung exam:
A. Pulmonary infarction
B. Chronic bronchitis
C. Emphysema
D. Tuberculosis

D

16. Patient with past history of smoking is at risk to develop what type of COPD?
A. Emphysema
B. Bronchiectasis
C. Chronic bronchitis
D. Asthma

A

16. Most common cause of metastasis to the vertebral spine:
A. Lungs
B. Pancreas
C. Kidney
D. Prostate gland

A

17. Patient presents with pleuritic pain and mediastinal shift:
A. Lung abscess
B. Lung tumor
C. Pneumothorax

C

18. Plantar ulcer, pale, cold, painless and swollen legs:
A. Acute venous insufficiency
B. Chronic venous insufficiency
C. Acute arterial insufficiency
D. Chronic arterial insufficiency

D

19. This is a primitive reflex that will integrate at or before 6 months:
A. Moro reflex
B. Asymmetric tonic neck reflex
C. Symmetric tonic neck reflex
D. Startle reflex

A

20. True about Volkmann's contracture:
A. FDP, FDL are spared
B. Affects the radial artery
C. Involves fracture of forearm/radius/ulna
D. Commonly seen in weightlifter and clerical jobs

C

21. Tests for patellofemoral (pain syndrome, EXCEPT?)
A. Waldron test
B. Lateral pull test
C. Clarke's sign
D. Strattle/Stutter test

D

22. Not involved in Erb-Duchenne palsy?
A. Elbow flexion
B. Shoulder flexion
C. Wrist extension
D. Forearm supination

B

23. Third dorsal compartment of the wrist contains the tendon of:
A. Extensor carpi radialis longus
B. Extensor digitorum communis
C.Extensor pollicis longus
D. Extensor pollicis brevis

C

24. A patient sustains a traction injury to the anterior division of the brachial plexus. PT expects weakness of the elbow flexors, wrist flexors, and pronators. PT may find additional weakness in:
A. Thumb abduction
B. Forearm supination
C. Wrist extension
D. Shoulder external rotation

D

25. Mechanism of injury of medial meniscus injury:
A. Internal rotation of femur, internal rotation of tibia
B. Internal rotation of femur, external rotation of tibia
C. External rotation of femur, internal rotation of tibia
D. External rotation of femur, external rotation of tibia

B

26. Prenatal causes of cerebral palsy, EXCEPT:
A. Cytomegalovirus
B. Meningitis
C. Herpes simplex
D. Toxoplasmosis
E. Rubella

B

27. A child with cerebral palsy can perform ambulation with an assistive device for short distances but requires a wheelchair for long distances. What is the GMFCS level of the child?
A. Level 1
B. Level 2
C. Level 3
D. Level 4
E. Level 5

C

28. Appearance of Grade 1 chondromalacia patella:
A. Fissuring
B. Crabmeat appearance
C. Softening and swelling

C

29. "Free association" is associated to:
A. Alfred Adler
B. Erik Erickson
C. Sigmeund Freud
D. Carl Jung

C

30. The following indicates a damaged bursa, except?
A. Baker's cyst
B. Housemaids knee
C. Student's elbow
D. Tennis elbow

D

31. Blount's disease:
A. Tibia vara
B. Coxa vara
C. Tibia valga
D. Coxa valga

A

32. Low levels of cortisol:
A. Cushing syndrome
B. Hypothyroidism
C. Addison's disease
D. Hyperthyroidism

C

33. A drug that blocks the release of epinephrine is considered a:
A. Pharmacologic antagonist
B. Pharmacologic agonist
C. Physiologic antagonist
D. Physiologic agonist

A

34. Smallest organism considered to cause illness:
A. Virus
B. Fungi
C. Bacteria
D. Protozoa

A

35. (+) Thick, gray coating called "pseudomembrane" that can cover tissues in the nose,tonsils, voice box, and throat
A. Diptheria
B. Epiglottitis
C. Sore throat
D. Infective endocarditis

A

36. What structure separates the cerebral cortex from the cerebellum?
A. Falx cerebri
B. Falx cerebelli
C. Tentorium cerebelli
D. Diaphragma sellae

C

37.Eyes follow pencil moving inferiorly w/o head moving, what CN?
A. CN III
B. CN VI
C. CN IV
D. NONE OF THE ABOVE

A

38. A 5-year-old child was present when her babysitter was sexually assaulted. Which of the following symptoms would be most suggestive of posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD)in this child?
A. Playing normally with toys
B. Having dreams about princesses and castles
C. Taking the clothing off her dolls while playing
D. Expressing no fear when talking about the event
E. Talking about the event with her parents

C

39. A 63-year-old woman has been saving financial documents and records for many years,placing papers in piles throughout her apartment to the point where it has become unsafe. She acknowledges that the piles are a concern; however, she says that the papers include important documents and she is afraid to throw them away. She recalls several instances in which her taxes were audited and she needed certain documents to avoid a penalty. She is con- cerned because her landlord is threatening to evict her unless she removes the piles of papers. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Obsessive-compulsive disorder
B. Hoarding disorder
C. Delusional disorder
D. Nonpathological collecting behavior
E. Dementia (major neurocognitive disorder)

A

40. The following MMT procedures are assessed in side-lying, EXCEPT:
A. Gluteus maximus
B. Gluteus minimus
C. Hip adductors

A

41. Hormone in charge of fight or flight response:
A. Adrenaline
B. Glucagon
C. Insulin

A

42. Produced by the pancreas which functions to digest "carbohydrates":
A. Lipase
B. Glucagon
C. Insulin
D. Amylase

D

43. If you are rubbing salt to stimulate the taste receptors, you increase the sensitivity of the receptors for sweetness. This principle is known as
A. Simultaneous Contrast
B. Compensation
C. Accommodation
D. Successive Contrast

D

44. When terminating treatment, the caregiver:
A. Prepares and documents treatment plan and program.
B. Documents client's program and linked to functional outcomes
C. Establishes a functional diagnosis and outcome goals.
D. Documents and re-evaluates the client's functional outcome and establishes and documents follow-up date.
E. Evaluate patient's response to treatment and determines progress toward accomplishment of functional outcomes

D

45. What is the most common indirect cause of TBI?
A. Drugs
B. Cigarette smoking
C. Alcohol
D. Poisonous food

C

46. Denervation hypersensitivity:
A. Increase in receptors
B. Increased sensitivity to neurotransmitters

B

47. Spasticity of LE, hyperreflexia, loss of position sense:
A. Myelopathy
B. UMNL
C. Radiculopathy
D. LMNL

B

48. Severe headache with photosensitivity, neck stiffness and abrupt onset of symptoms:
A. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
B. Viral encephalitis
C. Migraine

A

49. Severe headache for almost 2 hours followed by a sudden loss of consciousness:
A. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
B. Viral encephalitis
C. Migraine

A

50. Which of the following is a leukotriene receptor blocker?
A. Alprostadil
B.Montelukast
C. Aspirin
D. Ibuprofen

B

51. An acute bacterial (often streptococcus) or viral infection that spreads throughout the lymphatic system; Red streaks are often seen in skin proximal to infection site
A. Generalized lymphadenopathy
B. Lymphadenitis
C. Secondary lymphadenopathy
D. Lymphangitis

D

52. Pain medication recommended for peptic ulcer:
A. Ibuprofen
B. Ketorolac
C. Aspirin
D. Diclofenac

C

53. Amount of air additionally inspired after tidal volume:

A. Vital capacity
B. Inspiratory capacity
C. Inspiratory reserve volume
D. Residual volume

C

54. Irregular respirations of variable depth (usually shallow), alternating with periods of apnea (absence of breathing):
A. Cheyne-stokes respirations
B. Kussmaul's respirations
C. Biot's respirations
D. Paradoxical respirations

C

55. Patient has increased urine output (residual is <100mL), not triggered by pain and activity:
A. Stress incontinence
B. Overflow incontinence
C. Urge incontinence
D. Functional incontinence

C

56. Pituitary adenoma:
A. May result to the suppression of optic chiasm
B. Can be associated with woman who has visual loss
C. Acromegaly

C

57. A patient is diagnosed to have venous thrombosis. What is the IDEAL drug regimen for this case?
A. Aspirin
B. Heparin and warfarin overlap
C. Clopidogrel
D. Dipyridamole and warfarin

B

58. Ligament of the ankle that is least commonly injured:
A. Anterior talofibular ligament
B. Calcaneofibular ligament
C. Posterior talofibular
D. Tibiofibular ligament

C

59. A 35-year-old firefighter is admitted to the hospital with severe burns. The patient experiences changes in cognition within a few hours of admission. The patient is confused, disoriented, and having problems focusing their attention. You realize that the patient is probably suffering from:

A. Amnesia
B. Delirium
C. Dementia
D. Alzheimer's

B

60. NSAIDS produce analgesia by its action on this enzyme:
A. Phospholipase A2
B. Cyclooxygenase 2
C. Cyclooxygenase 1
D. Lipoxygenase

B

61. If an 80 year-old patient 2 days post-op cardiac surgery stands up, what changes can be observed?
A. BP from 120/80 to 140/90
B. BP from 120/80 to 90/60
C. HR from 60 to 100
D. HR remains 60

B

62. RA 5680:
A. Law creating the organization of PT
B. Professional law regulating the practice of physical therapy
C. Law for PT continuing education
D. Law that determines the passing score in PT boards

B

63. The Problem Oriented Medical Record is a system based on the following EXCEPT:
A. formation of present and past information about the patient
B. identification of a specific treatment plan
C. Preparation of the informed consent.
D. Assessment of the effectiveness of the treatment plans
E. Development of a specific, current problem

C

64. Compute THR: 25 y/o, 55 bpm resting heart:
A. 118-153
B. 139-167
C. 125-181
D. 153-195

B

65. Patient had mild MI, but can currently do ADLs like gardening. What is your HEP?
A. Encouraging 3-4 METs
B. Encouraging 1-2 METs
C. Discouraging sexual activity

A

66. Bacterium that grows in inadequately-sterilized canned foods:
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Clostridium perfringens
C. Clostridium botulinum
D. Clostridium tetani

C

67. Inflammation is a complex tissue reaction that includes the release of cytokines,leukotrienes, prostaglandins, and peptides. Prostaglandins involved in inflammatory processes are typically produced from arachidonic acid by which of the following enzymes?
A. Cyclooxygenase-1(COX-1)
B. Glutathione-S-transferase
C. Cyclooxygenase-2(COX-2)
D. Lipoxygenase

C

68. Pharmacokinetics is defined as:
A. the use of specific drugs to prevent, treat, or diagnose a disease
B. the analysis of what the drug does to the body, including the mechanism by which the drug exerts its effect
C. the study of the harmful effects of chemicals.
D. The study of how the body deals with the drug in terms of the way it is absorbed, distributed, and eliminated

D

69. Which of the following classes of antibiotics exert their primary antibacterial effects by impairing bacterial cell membrane synthesis and function?
A. Beta Lactam drugs
B. Aminoglycosides
C. Fluoroquinolones
D. Erythromycins

A

70. Which of the following describes the mechanism of cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP) as a second messenger when a drug binds to a surface receptor?
A. cAMP activates enzymes throughout the cell to mediate a change in function instead of the drug directly changing enzymatic activity
B. cAMP increases cell membrane permeability through ion channels
C. cAMP enables the drug to directly change enzymatic activity intracellularly,thus altering biomechanical function within the cell

A

71. The biopsycho-social model in medicine explains illness as:
A. Linear causality
B. Complex phenomenon
C. Multi-factorial etiology
D. Intra-psychic in origin

C

72. Bactericidal drugs:
A. Kill or destroy bacteria
B. Limit the growth or proliferation of bacterial invaders

A

73. The basilar artery branches off as:
A. Posterior communicating artery
B. Paired posterior cerebral artery

A

74. A patient with CVA presents with (+) rooting reflex and gait apraxia. Which artery is affected?
A. Middle cerebral artery
B. Anterior cerebral artery
C. Posterior cerebral artery

B

75. A lesion of the supramarginal gyrus of the dominant parietal lobe resulting in the subject's inability to do what he or she wants to do:
A. Kinetic apraxia
B. Ideomotor apraxia
C. Ideational apraxia
D. Gait apraxia

B

76. Tourette syndrome is a pathology that has this disorder:
A. Athetosis
B. Tics
C. Tremor
D. Chorea

B

77. Skeletal muscles store just enough ATP to provide chemical energy for: C answer:
A. At lest 1 min. continuous contractions
B. At least 15 sec. continuous contractions
C. At least 30 sec. continuous contractions
D. Minimum five strong muscles contractions
E. At most three strong muscle contractions

C

78. What is the best cognitive behavioral therapy for TBI patients?
A. Give frequent reinforcements to the desired behavior
B. Promote fast-paced activities
C. Provide long and complex instructions
D. Avoid social interactions

A

79. Type of transport for glucose:
A. Facilitated diffusion
B. Primary transport
C. Secondary transport

A

80. Spasticity, hyperreflexia, myoclonus:
A. Myelopathy
B. UMNL
C. Radiculopathy
D. LMNL

B

81. Poor naming and non-fluent, intact comprehension and repetition:
A. Broca's aphasia
B. Transcortical sensory aphasia
C. Transcortical motor aphasia
D. Conduction aphasia

A

82. In the El Escorial Criteria for ALS, a possible ALS is characterized by:
A. UMN and LMN signs found in 3 regions
B. UMN and LMN signs found in 2 regions
C. UMN and LMN signs found in 1 region
D. LMN signs found only in 1 region

C

83. A therapist is obtaining a subjective history from a new patient diagnosed with right-side hemiplegia. The therapist notes that the patient is able to understand spoken language but unable to speak well. Most of the patient's words are incomprehensible. The patient also has difficulty in naming simple objects. What type of aphasia does the patient most likely have?
A. Anomic aphasia
B. Crossed aphasia
C. Broca's aphasia
D. Wernicke's aphasia

C

84. Emphasizing gait retraining and motor control relearning may help overcome which feature of Parkinson's disease?
A. Rigidity
B. Postural instability
C. Bradykinesia
D. Tremors

C

85. What is the average range for thoracic and lumbar extension?
A.0-45
B. 0-20
C. 0-25
D.0-15

C

86. In doing this test, patient shows nystagmus, lightheadedness, dizziness, and visual disturbances when fully in supine and head and neck rotation to right or left:
A. Barre-Lieou Sign
B. Bakody's Sign
C. DeBoyd Test
D. Static Vertebral Artery Test

D

87. Pain scale that uses a 10-cm scale:
A. Verbal rating scale
B. Numerical rating scale
C. Visual analog scale

C

88. Which of the following motions is restricted in total hip arthroplasty,anterolateral approach?
A. Abduction and external rotation
B. Adduction and external rotation
C. Internal rotation
D. External rotation

A

89. Vitamin essential for fracture repair:
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin B12
C. Vitamin B1
D. Vitamin C

D

90. In grading and staging neoplasm, TNM system is used. TNM stands for:
A. Tumor, node, metastasis
B. Tumor, neoplasm, mode of growth
C. Time, neoplasm, mode of growth
D. Time, node, metastasis

A

91. Initiated by IV disc degeneration:
A. Spondylolisthesis
B. Spondylosis
C. Spondylolysis

B

92. In cervical subluxation, which of the following cervical segments are most commonly affected?
A.C1-C2
B.C4-C5
C.C5-C6
D.C6-C7

A

93. Noradrenergic receptor:
A. Substantia nigra
B. Median raphe nucleus
C. Locus coeruleus

C

94.Ability to see in the dark:
A. Dark adaptation
B. Light adaptation

A

95. Manifestations of a radial nerve injury, EXCEPT:
A. Weakness of the extensor digitorum communis
B. Weakness of the extensor carpi ulnaris
C. Clawing of digits/hand
D. Wrist drop deformity

C

96. Which muscle does the lateral plantar nerve innervate?
A. Flexor hallucis brevis
B. Interossei
C. Abductor hallucis
D. Lumbricals

B

97. Which is not part of the hippocampal function?
A. Paraventricular nuclei
B. Dentate gyrus
C. Ammon's horn
D. Subiculum

A

98. Pt's eyeballs roll upward when asked to close eyes tightly.
A. Bulbar
B. Ganglial reflex
C. Bell's palsy

C

99. Which part of the cerebellum, when affected, causes tremors?:
A. Paleocrebellum
B. Neocerebellum
C. Archicerebellum

B