Anatomy & physiology lecture midterm

Erythropoietin is secreted

when blood levels of oxygen decline.

Which of the following is most likely to be caused by the immobility of bed rest?

Venous thrombosis

Erythropoietin

stimulates the bone marrow to make RBCs.

Which cell is the “parent cell” of the three types of blood cells produced in the bone marrow?

Stem cell

At the end of 120 days, the red blood cell:

is removed from the circulation and broken down.

Which of the following best describes a granulocyte?

Phagocytic and myelocytic

This blood cell secretes both histamine and heparin.

Basophil

A hematocrit of 35% (male) is most often indicative of:

deficiency of RBCs as in anemia.

What is the name of the condition caused by a diet that is deficient in iron?

Anemia

Which of the following is least associated with hemostasis?

Phagocytosis

What does the hematocrit measure?

Percentage of red blood cells in the blood

Which of the following is related to the white blood cell?

Phagocytosis

This blood cell is elevated in persons with allergies and parasitic diseases.

Eosinophil

Which of the following is an oxygen-carrying blood cell?

Erythrocyte

Which of the following is most descriptive of the cause of hemophilia?

Genetically induced

The anemia of chronic kidney failure is:

treated with EPO (erythropoietin).

Thrombocytopenia:

(ALL ARE CORRECT) refers to a deficiency of platelets.-is caused by myelosuppression.-may be accompanied by aplastic anemia and granulocytopenia.

Neutrophils and monocytes:

engage in phagocytosis.

Rapid breakdown of which blood cell causes jaundice?

Red blood cell

Which of the following best describes prothrombin and fibrinogen?

Clotting factors

Erythropoietin

(ALL ARE CORRECT) is released in response to hypoxemia.-is secreted by the kidneys.-stimulates the bone marrow to produce RBCs.

Which of the following is characteristic of erythrocytes?

Formed by myeloid erythropoiesis.

Which of the following types of blood can a person with type O blood receive safely?

O type

Which anticoagulant is secreted by mast cells (basophils)?

Heparin

Neutrophils, basophils, and eosinophils are all:

granulocytes

Which of the following mom–baby combinations is most apt to induce erythroblastosis fetalis?

Mom A(–), baby A(+)

Which of the following is descriptive of a neutrophil?

Phagocyte

Leukopenia, granulocytopenia, and neutropenia:

are terms that refer to a deficiency of white blood cells.

Donor blood is typed and cross-matched with the recipient’s blood to prevent which conditions?

Agglutination and hemolysis

Which of the following is true of iron?

(ALL ARE CORRECT) is in the heme part of hemoglobin.-Binds reversibly to oxygen.-Is necessary for erythropoiesis.

Which of the following is the stimulus for the release of erythropoietin?

Hypoxemia

Which of the following conditions is caused by an overdose of heparin or warfarin sodium (Coumadin)?

Bleeding

Which of the following is characteristic of the activated platelet?

Stickiness

Which function is most associated with fibrinogen, prothrombin, and calcium?

Blood coagulation

Prothrombin, thrombin, and fibrinogen:

are involved in coagulation.

Which of the following is caused by agglutination of the RBCs?

Hemolysis

Which term best describes the following: A, B, AB, and O?

Antigens

Both the red blood cell and white blood cell:

are produced in the bone marrow.

Which of the following is most associated with a blood clot?

Fibrin strands

What is the breakdown product of heme?

Bilirubin

Monocytes and lymphocytes:

are nongranular leukocytes.

Erythroblastosis fetalis is primarily a problem involving:

agglutination and hemolysis.

Erythropoiesis is least associated with which of the following?

Monoblast

Plasma:

is the fluid part of the blood.

Identify the following: vascular spasm, platelet plug, coagulation.

Hemostasis

Which of the following is the most common cause of myelosuppression?

Drugs, especially the anticancer drugs

Heme contains:

iron

Which of the following best characterizes the effects of hemophilia?

Bleeding

What is the most important role of hemoglobin?

Transport of oxygen

Leukocytosis and leukopenia are:

abnormal numbers of white blood cells.

The patient is scheduled for a cardiac catheterization. A catheter is inserted into the femoral artery and threaded in a retrograde direction into the coronary arteries. Regarding the pathway of the catheter, it will be threaded through all the blood vessels except the:

inferior vena cava.

Which of the following does not happen during ventricular diastole?

Blood is being pumped into the great vessels.

These veins carry oxygenated blood.

Pulmonary and umbilical veins

The common iliac veins drain unoxygenated blood into the:

inferior vena cava.

Which layer of the heart also lines the valves and is continuous with blood vessels?

Endocardium

The semilunar valves:

receive blood from the contracting ventricles.

The correct sequence is: Blood flows from the right atrium to the right ventricle to the pulmonary artery to the:

pulmonary capillaries.

Which of the following is most apt to induce an autonomically induced bradycardia?

Activation of the muscarinic receptors

The renal arteries

deliver oxygenated blood to the kidneys.

Which of the following best indicates why the left ventricular myocardium is thicker than the right ventricular myocardium?

The left ventricle works harder than the right ventricle.

Which of the following is not true of the heart?

The pericardium is composed of actin and myosin.

Which of the following represents a correct direction of blood flow?

Capillaries to venules to veins

Which of the following is not part of coronary circulation?

Pulmonary veins

Which condition can occur as a result of low blood volume?

Postural hypotension

What is the “main vein that drains the brain”?

Jugular

Which of the following is true of the aorta?

It arises within the left ventricle.

Stenosis of which valve causes right ventricular hypertrophy?

Right semilunar

The carotid and vertebral arteries supply the:

brain

Which of the following is part of the blood flow through the heart?

Left atrium

An accumulation of excess fluid in the pericardial space:

causes external compression of the heart.

Which of the following is the best description of systole and diastole?

Contraction and relaxation

Which of the following blood vessels brings digestive end products to the liver?

Portal vein

If the left ventricle of the heart fails, blood backs up in the pulmonary capillary,

increasing capillary pressure and forcing fluid into the lungs.

The heart:

lies within the mediastinal and thoracic cavities.

Which of the following does not happen to a ventricle?

Discharge of the vagal nerve

Where is a thrombi most likely to form in a patient with atrial fibrillation?

Left atrial appendage

The correct sequence is: Blood flows from the pulmonary capillaries to the pulmonary veins to the left atrium to the left ventricle to the:

aorta.

Which structure “sees” oxygenated blood?

Pulmonary veins

Which of the following veins drains blood that is rich in digestive end products specifically from the small intestine and first part of the large intestine?

Superior mesenteric vein

The characteristic of the arteriole that allows it to function as a resistance vessel is its:

smooth muscle.

Which of the following is an electrical event?

Depolarization

Where does the cardiac action potential (cardiac impulse) normally originate?

SA node

Which condition is caused by defective valves in the lower leg veins?

Varicose veins

Which of the following is least related to a bradycardia?

Greater than 60 beats/min

The pacemaker of the heart is located in the upper wall of the:

right atrium.

Which of the following supplies oxygenated blood to the heart muscle?

Coronary arteries

Plasma oncotic pressure is caused primarily by:

plasma proteins, especially albumin.

What is the valvular response to the contraction of the ventricles?

The pulmonic and aortic valves open.

Which artery is most often used to measure blood pressure?

Brachial

Which blood vessel carries unoxygenated blood?

Pulmonary artery

Through which blood vessel does blood flow on its way from the right jugular vein to the coronary arteries?

Right subclavian vein

Which of the following is true of the venae cavae?

Most veins directly or indirectly drain into the venae cavae.

ANP and BNP are secreted by the heart in response to:

distension of the heart walls.

The three groups of blood vessels that are associated with hepatic circulation include the hepatic artery, the hepatic veins, and the _______________.

hepatic portal system

During atrial systole, the:

ventricles are relaxed.

What structure is not perfused as blood flows from the venae cavae to the pulmonary veins?

Left anterior descending artery

Which of the following might result from ischemia?

Tissue damage

The tibial, peroneal, and popliteal veins:

are found in the lower extremities.

Through which blood vessel does blood flow on its way from the subclavian vein to the left common carotid artery?

Ascending aorta

The purpose of the right heart is to pump blood:

to the lungs for oxygenation.