2022, 2023, & 2024 Tests - Vet Science CDE

When performing a physical exam on a patient…

Always conduct the exam in the same order.

The feline patient’s heart rate is 240 bpm. Which term describes this abnormal finding in the cat?

Tachycardia.

What occurs if a patient is dehydrated?

Hypotension.

Which type of IV fluid is generally considered well suited for use in resuscitation due to their tendency to remain within the vascular space and provide relatively efficient and prolonged volume expansion?

Colloids.

Which of the following physical indicators is consistent with dehydration in the veterinary patient?

Decreased skin turgor.

During your initial assessment of the patient, it is important to determine if the patient was born with a genetic or environmentally induced condition. These specific conditions are often referred to as:

Congential.

In your conversation with the owner, you note the following information in the medical record: patient name is Oliver, and he is a 4-year-old neutered male American Shorthair, and is up to date on all core vaccines. The owner has noticed over the last 48 hours that Oliver has become less active, is vocalizing often, is not interested in eating, and has been frequenting the litter box. What part of the information provided by the owner is considered to be a part of the veterinary patient’s signalment?

Age, breed, and sex.

 What is the condition characterized by dysuria, hematuria, pollakiuria, urinating in uncommon places, and occasionally urethral obstructions?

Feline lower urinary tract disease.

Which electrolyte is most dangerous to the patient’s heart when there is a urinary blockage?

Potassium.

Heart murmurs are generally classified by their intensity and when they occur in the cardiac cycle. Which of the following is not considered an appropriate classification of a heart murmur in the veterinary patient?

Ventricular, Grade VII.

Using a drug in any manner other than in accordance with the approved labelled use is called:

Extra-Label.

What class of drugs do acepromazine and buprenorphine belong to respectively?

Sedative / Opioid (Partial Mu Agonist).

A licensed veterinary technician is prohibited from doing all of the following except:

Treating.

Which of the following is the least desired method for collecting urine for a urinalysis from the veterinary patient?

Collection from floor, empty cage, or litter box.

 Define “Cystotomy”

Incision into the urinary bladder.

Visual examination of the urine sample includes which of the following?

Color and Turbidity.

What are the two most common calculi in cats that can lead to lower urinary tract diseases?

Struvite and calcium oxalate.

 If a urinary obstructed male cat goes 12 to 24 hours without urination, what other clinical signs/conditions may occur?

Electrolyte abnormalities, cardiac arrhythmias, and kidney disfunction.

Before you take the patient to the diagnostic imaging room to obtain radiographs, the lead veterinary technician wants to make sure you are proficient with your directional terminology.

For questions 19 & 20, use the corresponding photo

Distal.

The arrow associated with “#20” is pointing toward which of the following directions of the head?

Rostral.

While restraining animals for radiographs, it is important to always wear which pieces of personal protective equipment?

Lead gloves, lead apron, and thyroid shield.

Which two diagnostic imaging tools utilize x-rays?

Digital radiography and computed tomography.

What information is part of the legal medical record and should be included within the DICOM files tag to ensure access of the radiograph at a later date?

All of the above.

Which radiographic views are recommended as the standard when imaging a cat’s abdomen?

Right lateral, left lateral, and ventrodorsal.

Which BCS would be given to a cow that is extremely thin, showing very prominent ribs and bones, with little to no sign of fat or muscle?

BCS 1.

What is the most common and costly disease affecting the North American beef cattle industry?

Bovine Respiratory Disease.

With respect to food-producing animals, why is it recommended to perform intramuscular injections in the lateral cervical region?

The cervical muscles are easily discarded and not considered an economically favorable cut.

Antimicrobial residues in cattle carcasses are a serious concern leading to antimicrobial resistance and other human health implications. You recommend that your clients adhere to all withdrawal times and to keep medical records on all animals that ship for slaughter for ________ in order to furnish those records to the appropriate government regulatory agencies in the event of an antimicrobial meat residue.

2 years.

What is the most prevalent metabolic disease in cattle?

Ketosis.

What is milk fever in dairy cows typically treated with?

Intravenous Calcium.

Cattle and swine display what type of estrous cycle?

Polyestrous.

What is the average length of gestation in cattle?

279 days.

As you examine Gretta, the cow, you determine that she is pregnant. You review the owner’s calving plan and recommend the owner ensure the calf receives at least 150 grams of Immunoglobulin G (IgG) after delivery. IgG is a critical component found in ________, which should be ingested by the calf within 6-8 hours of birth to ensure passive transfer of immunity.

Colostrum.

Food travels through the stomach of the ruminant in what order?

Rumen, reticulum, omasum, abomasum.

One metric ton of livestock feed is equal to:

2,205 lbs.

With safety as your top priority, you make a point to identify fire extinguishers while out on farm visits. The mnemonic PASS is commonly used to remember how to operate a portable fire extinguisher. Which of the following is NOT part of the PASS mnemonic?

Aim high.

In order to complete a CVI for livestock moving across state lines, a veterinarian must be

USDA Category II Accredited.

Magnets are administered orally to cattle to prevent what disease?

Reticuloperitonitis.

A fight between two large pigs is usually handled by:

Placing a solid panel of plywood between them.

What are essential items for the safety of veterinary personnel restraining pigs.

Ear Plugs.

Farrowing is:

The term applied to a sow giving birth.

A lactating sow nursing 10 piglets should receive at least _____ lbs of feed daily.

15.

Most commercial market hogs weigh approximately how many pounds when sent to slaughter?

225-300.

What is a disease of pigs for which they should be vaccinated that causes fever, skin lesions, sudden death, and chronic endocarditis or chronic arthritis.

Erysipelas.

You notice a piglet with a vesicular lesion on its snout, since there are multiple species on site, you need to consider diseases that affect multiple species. Which disease of swine also impacts other livestock species like cattle and horses?

Vesicular Stomatitis.

Pigs are generally considered a/an _______ in the pathogenesis of Foot and Mouth Disease (FMD).

Amplifying Host.

Which serotype of FMD virus is currently the most common circulating serotype in the world?

Type O.

Which of the following disinfectants is LEAST effective against Seneca Virus A?

Phenolic Disinfectants.

What does Bo-Se ® (Selenium, Vitamin E) help prevent in calves, lambs, and ewes?

White muscle disease.

When working with animals during chores, what order is recommended to help prevent the spread of disease?

Healthiest and youngest animals first, then older animals, then sick animals last.

What type of biosecurity practice helps reduce parasites in animal living environments?

Using feed containers instead of ground-feeding.

Which of the following is NOT a suggested method for carcass disposal?

Feeding to other livestock/pets.

At what age is a horse said to have a "full mouth", having replaced all temporary teeth with permanent ones? (McCurnin 1157 10th edition)

5 years of age.

The layman's term "wolf teeth" refers to which kind of tooth in the horse? (McCurnin 285 8th edition)

Premolar.

What is the layman's term for serious abdominal pain in the equine patient? (McCurnin 1405 8th edition)

Colic.

Situated primarily on the right side of the horse, what is the name of the blind-ended fermentation vat immediately after the ileum? (Merck Veterinary Manual)

Cecum.

Which macronutrient is NOT primarily absorbed by the horses' small intestine? (Iowa State University Extension: Digestive Anatomy and Physiology of the Horse)

Structural Carbohydrates (dietary fiber).

What is the average gestational length in an adult horse? (McCurnin pg 328 10th edition)

340 days.

A horse is considered a(n) ____________ species, due to the frequency of their estrous cycle(s). (McCurnin pg 328 10th edition)

Polyestrous.

A castrated male horse is called a(n) ____________? (McCurnin pg 231 10th edition)

Gelding.

In what part of the mare's reproductive tract does embryonic implantation occur? (McCurnin Pg 333 10th edition)

Uterus.

During the parturition process in the mare, one would expect which of the following sequences to normally occur (from first to last): (McCurnin pg 333 10th edition)

Appearance of water bag, foal passes through birth canal, placenta passed.

A horse with a body condition score of 8 would likely have the following physical attributes: (McCurnin Pg. 279 10th edition)

Ribs – difficult to feel; Tailhead – fat around tailhead very soft.

Restraint with a mechanical twitch works by: (McCurnin p.195 8th edition)

Releasing endorphins.

In horses' wounds can develop exuberant granulation tissue. This is commonly known as (McCurnin p.994 eth edition)

Proud flesh.

When treating a wound on a horse, of the following, what is the first step? (McCurnin p. 993 8th edition)

Remove the hair from the edges of the wound.

When bandaging wounds, the secondary layer performs what function? (McCurnin p. 980n 8th edition)

Provides support.

Reactive airway disease in horses, recognized as causing difficulty in breathing, chronic cough, wheezing, and nasal discharge, is commonly known by horse owners as: (McCurnin pg. 619 10th Edition)

Heaves.

The normal resting respiratory rate for a mature, full-sized horse is: (McCurnin pg. 234 10th edition)

8-16 breaths per minute.

The anatomical term for the large cartilaginous tube that connects the larynx to the bronchi of the lungs, and commonly known as the "windpipe" is known as: (McCurnin pg. 618 10th edition)

Trachea.

Which of the following is a common equine respiratory disease that horse owners will have their horses vaccinated for? (McCurnin p.668 9th edition)

Equine herpesvirus types 1 and 4 (Equine Rhinopneumonitis).

Oxygen in the lungs is exchanged between the blood capillaries and what respiratory structure? (Merck Veterinary Manual)

Alveoli.

NSAIDs are a class of drug commonly used in equine medicine, what does this acronym stand for? (McCurnin p.913 9th edition)

Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug.

Which method below is NOT a currently available method for diagnosing parasites in horses? (McCurnin p.614 9th edition)

Fecal dehydration.

Which part of the horse's hoof is normally considered non-weight bearing? (University of Missouri Extension: Functional Anatomy of the Horse Foot)

Sole.

What diseases are considered part of the American Association of Equine Practitioner's core vaccination schedule for adult horses? (AAEP Core Vaccination Schedule)

Eastern/Western Equine Encephalomyelitis, West Nile Virus, Tetanus.

Which item below is generally considered safe/non-toxic for horses to ingest? (Merck Veterinary Manual; ASPCA Poison Control)

Easter Lily.

Which trait does not describe a typical terrier?

Shy.

Ricky is 5 years old. Based on age, Ricky is currently in what life stage?

Adult.

Ms. Carroll brings her dog, Ricky, in today for his annual wellness visit. He weighs 17 pounds and is 5 years old. There is a note in his chart that warns he is a fear-biter. The veterinary nurse collects pertinent information from Ms. Carroll about how Ricky is doing at home. He eats Hill's® Science Diet® adult dry dog food and is on Simparica TRIO® (sarolaner, moxidectin and pyrantel) monthly. Ms. Carroll will need more of this today. She doesn't travel with Ricky, except to the groomer, because he gets so fearful. Their neighbors have dogs that Ricky plays with. He has a normal appetite and normal elimination habits though lately; he has seemed itchy and restless. She would like Dr. Peelman to investigate this. What is not part of Ricky's signalment?

Fear Biter.

The owner reminds the veterinary nurse that Ricky, her dog, can be fearful and act out. Which behavior would you observe in an aggressive dog that you wouldn't see in fearful Ricky?

Direct eye contact.

Ricky scratches his ears, rubs his face along the couch, and licks his toes often. Sometimes she notices hair loss and scaly skin patches. What is most likely the underlying cause of Ricky's clinical signs?

Atopy.

The veterinary nurse asks if Ms. Carroll has seen Ricky paw at his mouth, drool excessively, or "chatter" his lower jaw.What ailment does the nurse have in mind?

Periodontal Disease.

Which diagnostic tool is NOT a typical recommendation given during a wellness visit for a 5 year old dog?

Survey Radiographs.

Which organ would chronic hepatitis affect?

Liver.

Abnormalities on which portion of the bloodwork would NOT signal the vet to investigate hypoadrenocorticism (Addison's disease)?

Thyroid panel.

Which complete blood count (CBC) value would a vet expect to see elevated if a dog had an allergic reaction or intestinal parasites?

Eosinophils.

What is true about the "big three" of radiation safety?

Time means avoiding retakes, do it right the first time.

What is not associated with radiography settings?

PACS.

The veterinary nurse also collects a urine sample through cystocentesis for evaluation. Which value would be elevated if a dog developed diabetes mellitus?

Ketones.

Which value indicates the kidneys are concentrating the urine properly?

Specific Gravity.

Which is not associated with an untreated ear infection?

Anterior uveitis.

In addition to the scales and hair loss reported, the vet identified pustules on the dog's abdomen during her physical exam.These clinical signs are consistent with which ailment below?

Bacterial Skin Infection.

Which organism does NOT contribute to canine infectious respiratory disease complex, more commonly known as "kennel cough"?

Leptospira.

Which virus is NOT considered a core canine vaccine by the American Animal Hospital Association?

Canine Influenza Virus.

Which vaccine is regulated across the United States to protect public health?

Rabies vaccine.

Which needle is most appropriate for giving a 17lb dog a subcutaneous injection?

22 G x 3/4".

Which syringe is most appropriate for a vaccine volume of 1 milliliter?

3 mL syringe.

What tick borne disease causes lameness, swollen joints, fever, and possibly swollen lymph nodes?

Lyme Disease.