Methods for extracting Nucleic acids

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Flashcards covering key concepts from the DNA extraction lecture notes, including sample sources, ancient DNA, DNA quantification, extraction methods, buffers, enzymes, PCI, silica-based methods, Chelex, and RNA extraction.

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43 Terms

1
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What are the five main DNA extraction method categories discussed in the notes?

Intro; Tissue homogenization and cell lysis; Organic (PCI) extraction; Solid-phase silica-based methods (e.g., QIAGEN spin columns); Chelex extraction.

2
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What are common sample sources from which DNA may be isolated?

Blood, tissue, semen, saliva, urine, hair (root & shaft), teeth, bone, cigarette butts, envelopes/stamps, fingernail clippings, chewing gum, bite marks, feces; epithelial cells lining cheeks are a common human DNA source.

3
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Why is ancient DNA often considered challenging/inauthentic?

Ancient DNA degrades by fragmentation, cross-linking, and deamination; postmortem mutation rate increases with time; some reported ancient-DNA sources (e.g., dinosaurs) are fiction.

4
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What is the oldest authentic ancient DNA sequenced to date?

Approximately 2.5 million-year-old environmental DNA from Greenland sediments.

5
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How much DNA does a diploid human cell contain?

Approximately 6 picograms (pg).

6
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How much DNA is in a sperm cell?

Approximately 3 pg.

7
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What is the theoretical DNA recovery per liter of blood?

30–60 ng.

8
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What is the typical DNA yield range from standard isolation kits per sample?

About 3 µg to 260 µg of total genomic DNA.

9
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How much DNA is typically required per standard PCR reaction?

Approximately 1 ng.

10
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What does 1 ng of DNA roughly correspond to in a blood sample and in sperm?

Mass of DNA in 1/20 of 1 µL of blood or about 350 sperm.

11
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What amount of DNA do Next-Generation Sequencing library prep protocols often specify per sample?

Approximately 20–500 ng of high-molecular-weight genomic DNA.

12
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Name the five essential components common to all DNA extraction methods.

1) Tissue homogenization; 2) Cell lysis; 3) Remove or inhibit nucleases; 4) Separate & remove other biological macromolecules and inhibitors; 5) Precipitate & resuspend/elute DNA.

13
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What are two common tissue disruption methods?

Bead beating with grinding media; manual grinding with a micropestle.

14
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What does a typical lysis buffer contain?

A strong detergent (e.g., SDS or CTAB) plus buffering salts (e.g., Tris-HCl) and ionic salts (e.g., NaCl).

15
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Which detergent is commonly used in many lysis buffers?

SDS (sodium dodecyl sulfate).

16
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What is the role of EDTA in lysis buffers?

Chelates divalent cations like Mg2+, inactivating DNases.

17
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Why is Proteinase K added during lysis?

To digest proteins, including DNases and RNases.

18
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What temperatures are typical for Proteinase K digestion?

Approximately 37–65°C for 30 minutes to 24 hours.

19
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After Proteinase K digestion, what is typically done?

Centrifuge to pellet debris; transfer the supernatant to a new tube.

20
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Which extraction method is introduced after PK digestion in the notes?

Phenol/Chloroform/Isoamyl Alcohol (PCI) liquid-liquid extraction.

21
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What are the three phases in PCI extraction?

Aqueous phase (DNA/RNA), Interphase (proteins), Organic phase (lipids and some proteins).

22
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What reagents make up PCI?

Phenol, chloroform, isoamyl alcohol.

23
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What is the typical Phenol:Chloroform:Isoamyl Alcohol ratio in PCI?

25:24:1.

24
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Why is a second extraction with 24:1 chloroform:isoamyl alcohol used after PCI?

To remove traces of phenol.

25
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What is the purpose of ethanol precipitation in PCI extraction?

Concentrate DNA by precipitating it with ethanol in the presence of salt.

26
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What salts are typically used for DNA precipitation in PCI extraction?

Sodium acetate (or other monovalent salts).

27
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What is the purpose of the 70% ethanol wash during DNA precipitation?

To remove solutes and impurities from the DNA pellet.

28
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How should the ethanol wash be performed to avoid losing DNA?

Add 70% ethanol until the tube is about 2/3 full; vortex briefly and re-centrifuge.

29
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What buffer is used to resuspend DNA after PCI extraction?

TE buffer or TE-4 (Tris-EDTA buffers).

30
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What is the purpose of EDTA in DNA storage buffers?

Chelates Mg2+ to help inactivate DNases and protect DNA.

31
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What are the pros of PCI extraction?

Yields potentially large amounts of relatively pure, high-molecular-weight DNA; double-stranded; relatively inexpensive.

32
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What are the cons of PCI extraction?

Time-consuming; multiple tube transfers increase contamination risk; uses hazardous chemicals.

33
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How does solid-phase silica-based DNA extraction work in QIAGEN spin columns?

Lysate is combined with ethanol and high salt; DNA binds to silica membrane under high ionic strength; contaminants pass through; DNA is washed and eluted.

34
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What are the pros of silica-based DNA extraction?

Moderately fast; safe; yields highly purified double-stranded DNA.

35
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What are the cons of silica-based DNA extraction?

Requires multiple tube transfers; kits can be expensive; chemistry is often proprietary and may limit visibility; yields may be insufficient for some NGS applications.

36
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What is Chelex 100 and its role in DNA extraction?

An ion-exchange resin (styrene-divinylbenzene copolymers with iminodiacetate groups) that chelates Mg2+ to inactivate nucleases and protect DNA.

37
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What are the basic steps of Chelex extraction?

Add 5% Chelex; incubate at 56°C for 30 minutes; heat to 100°C for 8 minutes; centrifuge and collect the supernatant (DNA in the supernatant).

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What type of DNA does Chelex extraction yield?

Single-stranded DNA.

39
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What are the pros and cons of Chelex extraction?

Pros: quick/easy; minimal homogenization; single-tube; reduces contamination. Cons: yields single-stranded DNA; not ideal for many downstream applications; residual Chelex can inhibit PCR; relatively expensive as a trademarked kit.

40
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What is the most common RNA extraction method?

Guanidinium thiocyanate-phenol-chloroform extraction.

41
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Why is guanidinium thiocyanate used in RNA extraction?

It denatures/eliminates RNases, protecting RNA.

42
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What is required to create a cDNA library from RNA?

Reverse transcriptase to synthesize complementary DNA (cDNA) from RNA.

43
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Why must RNA samples be fresh or rapidly frozen?

RNases rapidly degrade RNA; tissues can lose integrity within about an hour after death if not preserved.