MedTerms 2026 (Multiple choice format)

An abnormally rapid rate of respiration of more than 20 breaths per minute is known as. | a. bradypnea | b. eupnea | c. hyperventilation | d. tachypnea

d. tachypnea | Explanation: Tachypnea means abnormally fast breathing, usually counted by respiratory rate. | Correct breakdown: tachy- = fast; -pnea = breathing. | Other choices: bradypnea = brady- slow + -pnea breathing, so slow breathing; eupnea = eu- normal/good + -pnea breathing, so normal breathing; hyperventilation = hyper- excessive + ventilat/o air movement + -ion process, so excessive ventilation rather than the rate term.

An abnormally slow heart rate of less than 60 beats per minute is known as. | a. atrial fibrillation | b. bradycardia | c. palpitation | d. tachycardia

b. bradycardia | Explanation: Bradycardia means an abnormally slow heart rate. | Correct breakdown: brady- = slow; cardi/o = heart; -ia = condition. | Other choices: atrial fibrillation = atri/o atrium + fibrillat/o quivering, an irregular rhythm; palpitation = palpit/o fluttering + -ation process, awareness of heartbeat; tachycardia = tachy- fast + cardi/o heart + -ia condition, so fast heart rate.

The suffix means surgical fixation. | a. -desis | b. -lysis | c. -pexy | d. -ptosis

c. -pexy | Explanation: -pexy means surgical fixation or suspension of an organ/body part. | Correct breakdown: -pexy = fixation. | Other choices: -desis = binding/fusion, often surgical fusion; -lysis = loosening, breakdown, or destruction; -ptosis = drooping or prolapse, not a fixation procedure.

The presence of glucose in the urine is known as. | a. albuminuria | b. calciuria | c. glycosuria | d. hematuria

c. glycosuria | Explanation: Glycosuria means glucose in the urine. | Correct breakdown: glyc/o or glycos/o = sugar/glucose; -uria = urine condition. | Other choices: albuminuria = albumin protein + -uria, protein in urine; calciuria = calci/o calcium + -uria, calcium in urine; hematuria = hemat/o blood + -uria, blood in urine.

A collection of pus within a body cavity is known as a/an. | a. cyst | b. empyema | c. hernia | d. tumor

b. empyema | Explanation: Empyema means a collection of pus in a body cavity, especially the pleural space. | Correct breakdown: empy- = pus; -ema = condition. | Other choices: cyst = closed sac; hernia = protrusion through a wall; tumor = swelling or neoplasm. Those may form masses, but they do not specifically mean pus in a cavity.

An __________ is the surgical removal of a joint. | a. angiectomy | b. arteriectomy | c. atherectomy | d. arthrectomy

d. arthrectomy | Explanation: Arthrectomy is surgical removal/excision of a joint. | Correct breakdown: arthr/o = joint; -ectomy = surgical removal. | Other choices: angiectomy = angi/o vessel + -ectomy removal; arteriectomy = arteri/o artery + -ectomy removal; atherectomy = ather/o plaque + -ectomy removal, a plaque-removal vascular procedure.

The abnormal development or growth of cells is known as. | a. anaplasia | b. dysplasia | c. hyperplasia | d. hypertrophy

b. dysplasia | Explanation: Dysplasia means abnormal development or growth of cells/tissue. | Correct breakdown: dys- = abnormal, bad, or difficult; -plasia = formation/development. | Other choices: anaplasia = ana- backward/again + -plasia formation, loss of mature cell features; hyperplasia = hyper- excessive + -plasia formation, increased cell number; hypertrophy = hyper- excessive + -trophy growth/nourishment, increased cell size.

Which form of anemia is a genetic disorder? | a. aplastic | b. hemolytic | c. megaloblastic | d. sickle cell

d. sickle cell | Explanation: Sickle cell anemia is a genetic hemoglobin disorder. | Correct breakdown: sickle = crescent-shaped; cell = cell; anemia = an- without/lack + -emia blood condition, referring to low red-cell/hemoglobin capacity. | Other choices: aplastic anemia = a- without + -plastic forming, marrow failure; hemolytic anemia = hem/o blood + -lytic breaking down, red-cell destruction; megaloblastic anemia = megalo- large + blast immature cell, large abnormal precursors.

The medical term for the condition commonly known as brown lung disease is. | a. anthracosis | b. byssinosis | c. pneumoconiosis | d. silicosis

b. byssinosis | Explanation: Byssinosis is the medical term for brown lung disease caused by cotton/flax/hemp dust exposure. | Correct breakdown: byssin/o = cotton/flax fiber; -osis = abnormal condition. | Other choices: anthracosis = anthrac/o coal dust + -osis; pneumoconiosis = pneum/o lung + coni/o dust + -osis, a general dust-lung disease; silicosis = silic/o silica + -osis.

__________ is an inflammation of the myelin sheath of peripheral nerves, characterized by rapidly worsening muscle weakness that can lead to temporary paralysis. | a. Bell's palsy | b. Guillain-Barré syndrome | c. Lou Gehrig's disease | d. Raynaud's phenomenon

b. Guillain-Barré syndrome | Explanation: Guillain-Barre syndrome is an acute immune-mediated polyneuropathy with demyelination of peripheral nerves and rapidly progressive weakness. | Correct breakdown: this is an eponym, so it is not built from standard word roots. | Other choices: Bell's palsy is facial nerve paralysis; Lou Gehrig's disease is ALS, a motor neuron disease; Raynaud's phenomenon is episodic vasospasm in digits.

The term describes weakness or wearing away of body tissues and structures caused by pathology or by disuse of the muscle over a long period of time. | a. adhesion | b. ankylosis | c. atrophy | d. contracture

c. atrophy | Explanation: Atrophy means wasting, weakening, or decrease in size of tissue from disease or disuse. | Correct breakdown: a- = without/lack; -trophy = nourishment/development. | Other choices: adhesion = abnormal fibrous attachment; ankylosis = stiffening/fusion of a joint; contracture = permanent shortening of muscle/tendon causing deformity.

The suffix means blood or blood condition. | a. -emia | b. -oma | c. -pnea | d. -uria

a. -emia | Explanation: -emia means blood condition. | Correct breakdown: -emia = condition of blood. | Other choices: -oma = tumor or mass; -pnea = breathing; -uria = urine condition.

The procedure in which an anastomosis is created between the upper portion of the stomach and the duodenum is a/an. | a. esophagogastrectomy | b. esophagoplasty | c. gastroduodenostomy | d. gastrostomy

c. gastroduodenostomy | Explanation: Gastroduodenostomy creates an anastomosis between the stomach and duodenum. | Correct breakdown: gastr/o = stomach; duoden/o = duodenum; -stomy = surgically created opening/mouth. | Other choices: esophagogastrectomy = esophag/o esophagus + gastr/o stomach + -ectomy removal; esophagoplasty = esophag/o esophagus + -plasty repair; gastrostomy = gastr/o stomach + -stomy opening, usually from stomach to body surface.

The term, which is also known as wheezing, is the sound heard during breathing out as air passes out through a partially obstructed airway. | a. bruit | b. rale | c. rhonchus | d. stridor

c. rhonchus | Explanation: Rhonchus/rhonchi are adventitious breathing sounds associated with airway obstruction or secretions and may be described as wheezy or snoring. | Correct breakdown: rhonch/o = snoring/wheezing sound; -us = noun ending. | Other choices: bruit = abnormal vascular sound; rale = crackling lung sound; stridor = harsh high-pitched sound, usually upper airway obstruction.

The term means abnormal enlargement of the liver. | a. hepatitis | b. hepatomalacia | c. hepatomegaly | d. hepatorrhexis

c. hepatomegaly | Explanation: Hepatomegaly means abnormal enlargement of the liver. | Correct breakdown: hepat/o = liver; -megaly = enlargement. | Other choices: hepatitis = hepat/o liver + -itis inflammation; hepatomalacia = hepat/o liver + -malacia softening; hepatorrhexis = hepat/o liver + -rrhexis rupture.

The term describing the prolapse of a kidney is. | a. nephrectasis | b. nephroptosis | c. nephropyosis | d. nephropexy

b. nephroptosis | Explanation: Nephroptosis means prolapse or downward displacement of a kidney. | Correct breakdown: nephr/o = kidney; -ptosis = drooping/prolapse. | Other choices: nephrectasis = nephr/o kidney + -ectasis dilation; nephropyosis = nephr/o kidney + py/o pus + -osis condition; nephropexy = nephr/o kidney + -pexy surgical fixation.

Which of these conditions is commonly known as a bruise? | a. ecchymosis | b. epistaxis | c. hematoma | d. lesion

a. ecchymosis | Explanation: Ecchymosis is a bruise, a flat discoloration from bleeding under the skin. | Correct breakdown: ecchym/o = pouring out/extravasated blood; -osis = condition. | Other choices: epistaxis = epi- upon + staxis dripping, nosebleed; hematoma = hemat/o blood + -oma mass, localized blood collection; lesion = abnormal tissue area, broad and nonspecific.

The acute respiratory syndrome known as __________ is characterized in children and infants by obstruction of the larynx, hoarseness, and a barking cough. | a. asthma | b. croup | c. diphtheria | d. pneumonia

b. croup | Explanation: Croup is an acute respiratory syndrome in young children with laryngeal obstruction, hoarseness, and a barking cough. | Correct breakdown: croup is a common clinical term, not a classical prefix-root-suffix build. | Other choices: asthma = chronic inflammatory airway disease; diphtheria = bacterial infection with pseudomembrane; pneumonia = pneumon/o lung + -ia condition, lung infection/inflammation.

__________ is a condition in which the immune system mistakenly attacks and progressively destroys the thyroid gland. | a. Conn's disease | b. Hashimoto's thyroiditis | c. Lou Gehrig's disease | d. Grave's disease

b. Hashimoto's thyroiditis | Explanation: Hashimoto's thyroiditis is autoimmune destruction/inflammation of the thyroid. | Correct breakdown: Hashimoto is an eponym; thyroid/o = thyroid gland; -itis = inflammation. | Other choices: Conn's disease/syndrome is hyperaldosteronism; Lou Gehrig's disease is ALS; Graves' disease is autoimmune hyperthyroidism, not progressive thyroid destruction.

Which sexually transmitted disease can be detected through the VDRL blood test before the lesions appear? | a. chlamydia | b. gonorrhea | c. syphilis | d. trichomoniasis

c. syphilis | Explanation: Syphilis can be detected with serologic blood tests such as VDRL before classic lesions are obvious. | Correct breakdown: syphilis is not a word-part term; it names the Treponema pallidum infection. | Other choices: chlamydia and gonorrhea are bacterial STIs but not the VDRL target; trichomoniasis = trichomonad parasite + -iasis condition, a protozoal STI.

A blood clot attached to the interior wall of a vein or artery is known as a/an. | a. embolism | b. embolus | c. thrombosis | d. thrombus

d. thrombus | Explanation: A thrombus is a blood clot attached to a vessel wall. | Correct breakdown: thromb/o = clot; -us = noun ending. | Other choices: embolism = embol/o plug + -ism condition/process, obstruction by a traveling plug; embolus = traveling clot/plug; thrombosis = thromb/o clot + -osis condition/process of clot formation, not the clot itself.

The term describes the removal of a body part or the destruction of its function by surgery, hormones, drugs, heat, chemical destruction, electrocautery, or other methods. | a. ablation | b. abrasion | c. cryosurgery | d. exfoliative cytology

a. ablation | Explanation: Ablation means removal of a body part or destruction of its function by surgery, heat, drugs, radiation, or other methods. | Correct breakdown: ablat/o = carry/remove away; -ion = process. | Other choices: abrasion = scraping away of skin; cryosurgery = cry/o cold + surgery, tissue destruction by freezing; exfoliative cytology = scraping/shedding cells for microscopic study.

The term describes any restriction to the opening of the mouth caused by trauma, surgery, or radiation associated with the treatment of oral cancer. | a. atresia | b. cachexia | c. steatosis | d. trismus

d. trismus | Explanation: Trismus is restricted mouth opening, often from spasm, trauma, surgery, or radiation. | Correct breakdown: trism/o = grinding/lockjaw; -us = noun ending. | Other choices: atresia = a- without + -tresia opening, absence/closure of a normal opening; cachexia = wasting; steatosis = steat/o fat + -osis condition, fatty change.

A woman who has delivered one child is referred to as a. | a. nulligravida | b. nullipara | c. primigravida | d. primipara

d. primipara | Explanation: Primipara means a woman who has delivered one viable child. | Correct breakdown: primi- = first; -para = to bear/give birth. | Other choices: nulligravida = nulli- none + gravida pregnant woman, never pregnant; nullipara = nulli- none + -para birth, no deliveries; primigravida = primi- first + gravida pregnant, pregnant for first time.

The term means inflammation of the pancreas. | a. pancreatalgia | b. pancreatectomy | c. pancreatitis | d. pancreatotomy

c. pancreatitis | Explanation: Pancreatitis means inflammation of the pancreas. | Correct breakdown: pancreat/o = pancreas; -itis = inflammation. | Other choices: pancreatalgia = pancreat/o pancreas + -algia pain; pancreatectomy = pancreat/o pancreas + -ectomy removal; pancreatotomy = pancreat/o pancreas + -otomy incision.

The condition in which excess cerebrospinal fluid accumulates in the ventricles of the brain is known as. | a. encephalocele | b. hydrocephalus | c. hydronephrosis | d. hydroureter

b. hydrocephalus | Explanation: Hydrocephalus is excess cerebrospinal fluid in the brain ventricles. | Correct breakdown: hydr/o = water/fluid; cephal/o = head; -us = condition/noun ending. | Other choices: encephalocele = encephal/o brain + -cele hernia; hydronephrosis = hydr/o fluid + nephr/o kidney + -osis condition; hydroureter = hydr/o fluid + ureter/o ureter.

A __________ is the surgical fixation of a prolapsed vagina to a surrounding structure. | a. colpopexy | b. colporrhaphy | c. cystopexy | d. cystorrhaphy

a. colpopexy | Explanation: Colpopexy is surgical fixation of a prolapsed vagina to nearby support tissue. | Correct breakdown: colp/o = vagina; -pexy = surgical fixation. | Other choices: colporrhaphy = colp/o vagina + -rrhaphy suture; cystopexy = cyst/o bladder + -pexy fixation; cystorrhaphy = cyst/o bladder + -rrhaphy suture.

The combining form metr/o means. | a. breast | b. cervix | c. menstruation | d. uterus

d. uterus | Explanation: Metr/o means uterus. | Correct breakdown: metr/o = uterus; it appears in endometrium and metritis. | Other choices: breast = mast/o or mamm/o; cervix = cervic/o; menstruation = men/o or menstru/o.

Which statement is accurate regarding cystic fibrosis (CF)? | a. CF is a congenital disorder in which red blood cells take on a sickle shape. | b. CF is also known as iron overload disease. | c. CF is a genetic disorder that affects the lungs and digestive system. | d. CF is characterized by short-lived red blood cells.

c. CF is a genetic disorder that affects the lungs and digestive system. | Explanation: Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder affecting mucus/secretions, especially in the lungs and digestive system. | Correct breakdown: cystic = cyst/o sac/bladder + -ic pertaining to; fibrosis = fibr/o fiber + -osis abnormal condition. | Other choices: sickle-shaped red cells describe sickle cell disease; iron overload is hemochromatosis; short-lived red cells describe hemolytic processes.

The condition __________, which is thinner than average bone density, causes the patient to be at increased risk of developing osteoporosis. | a. osteochondroma | b. osteopenia | c. osteosclerosis | d. rickets

b. osteopenia | Explanation: Osteopenia means lower-than-average bone density and increased osteoporosis risk. | Correct breakdown: oste/o = bone; -penia = deficiency/lack. | Other choices: osteochondroma = oste/o bone + chondr/o cartilage + -oma tumor; osteosclerosis = oste/o bone + -sclerosis hardening; rickets is childhood bone softening from vitamin D/mineral problems.

A/An __________ is a specialist who provides medical care to women during pregnancy, childbirth, and immediately thereafter. | a. geriatrician | b. gynecologist | c. neonatologist | d. obstetrician

d. obstetrician | Explanation: An obstetrician specializes in pregnancy, childbirth, and the immediate postpartum period. | Correct breakdown: obstetric = midwifery/childbirth care; -ian = specialist/person. | Other choices: geriatrician = ger/o old age + -iatric care + -ian specialist; gynecologist = gynec/o woman + -logist specialist; neonatologist = ne/o new + nat/o birth + -logist specialist.

__________ is characterized by exophthalmos. | a. Conn's syndrome | b. Graves' disease | c. Hashimoto's thyroiditis | d. Huntington's disease

b. Graves' disease | Explanation: Graves' disease is autoimmune hyperthyroidism and is classically associated with exophthalmos. | Correct breakdown: Graves is an eponym; disease term has no standard root breakdown. | Other choices: Conn's syndrome = excess aldosterone; Hashimoto's thyroiditis = autoimmune thyroid destruction/hypothyroidism tendency; Huntington's disease = inherited neurodegenerative movement disorder.

The hormone __________ stimulates uterine contractions during childbirth. | a. estrogen | b. oxytocin | c. progesterone | d. testosterone

b. oxytocin | Explanation: Oxytocin stimulates uterine contractions during labor and milk letdown. | Correct breakdown: oxy- = swift/sharp; -tocin relates to childbirth/labor. | Other choices: estrogen and progesterone are reproductive steroid hormones; testosterone is an androgen; none of those is the main uterotonic labor hormone.

A/An __________ is an unfavorable response due to prescribed medical treatment. | a. idiopathic disorder | b. nosocomial infection | c. infectious disease | d. iatrogenic illness

d. iatrogenic illness | Explanation: Iatrogenic illness is caused by medical treatment or a provider's action. | Correct breakdown: iatr/o = physician/medicine; -genic = produced by. | Other choices: idiopathic = idi/o unknown/self + -pathic disease, unknown cause; nosocomial = hospital-acquired; infectious disease = caused by pathogens, not specifically treatment-caused.

The procedure of freeing a kidney from adhesions is known as. | a. nephrolithiasis | b. nephrolysis | c. nephropyosis | d. pyelitis

b. nephrolysis | Explanation: Nephrolysis means freeing a kidney from adhesions. | Correct breakdown: nephr/o = kidney; -lysis = loosening/freeing/breakdown. | Other choices: nephrolithiasis = nephr/o kidney + lith/o stone + -iasis condition; nephropyosis = kidney pus condition; pyelitis = pyel/o renal pelvis + -itis inflammation.

__________ is the tissue death of an artery or arteries. | a. Arterionecrosis | b. Arteriostenosis | c. Atherosclerosis | d. Arthrosclerosis

a. Arterionecrosis | Explanation: Arterionecrosis means tissue death/necrosis of an artery. | Correct breakdown: arteri/o = artery; necr/o = death; -osis = abnormal condition. | Other choices: arteriostenosis = arteri/o artery + -stenosis narrowing; atherosclerosis = ather/o plaque + -sclerosis hardening; arthrosclerosis = arthr/o joint + -sclerosis hardening.

The __________ plane divides the body vertically into unequal left and right portions. | a. frontal | b. midsagittal | c. sagittal | d. transverse

c. sagittal | Explanation: A sagittal plane divides the body vertically into left and right portions; if unequal, it is sagittal but not midsagittal. | Correct breakdown: sagittal relates to an arrow-like front-to-back plane. | Other choices: frontal/coronal divides anterior and posterior; midsagittal divides equal left and right halves; transverse divides upper and lower portions.

The term __________ means toward or nearer the midline. | a. distal | b. dorsal | c. medial | d. ventral

c. medial | Explanation: Medial means toward or nearer the body's midline. | Correct breakdown: medi/o = middle; -al = pertaining to. | Other choices: distal = farther from point of attachment; dorsal = back/posterior side; ventral = belly/anterior side.

A __________ was performed as a definitive test to determine if Alice Wilkinson has osteoporosis. | a. bone marrow biopsy | b. dual x-ray absorptiometry test | c. MRI | d. nuclear bone scan

b. dual x-ray absorptiometry test | Explanation: Dual x-ray absorptiometry, usually abbreviated DXA or DEXA, is the standard bone-density test used to diagnose osteoporosis. | Correct breakdown: dual = two; x-ray = imaging radiation; absorptiometry = absorpti/o absorption + -metry measuring. | Other choices: bone marrow biopsy samples marrow; MRI images soft tissue; nuclear bone scan detects bone turnover/metastasis/injury, not the definitive density test.

The term __________ means movement away from the midline of the body. | a. abduction | b. adduction | c. extension | d. flexion

a. abduction | Explanation: Abduction means movement away from the body's midline. | Correct breakdown: ab- = away from; duct/o = lead/carry; -ion = process. | Other choices: adduction = ad- toward + duct/o lead, movement toward midline; extension = straightening; flexion = bending.

When he fell, Manuel tore the posterior femoral muscles in his left leg. This is known as a/an __________ injury. | a. Achilles tendon | b. hamstring | c. myofascial | d. shin splint

b. hamstring | Explanation: A hamstring injury involves posterior thigh muscles. | Correct breakdown: hamstring is common anatomy terminology, not a classical medical word-part build. | Other choices: Achilles tendon is at the heel/calf; myofascial = my/o muscle + fasci/o fascia + -al pertaining to; shin splint is anterior leg pain, not posterior femoral muscle tearing.

Mrs. Valladares has a bacterial infection of the lining of her heart. This condition is known as bacterial __________. | a. endocarditis | b. myocarditis | c. pericarditis | d. valvulitis

a. endocarditis | Explanation: Endocarditis is inflammation/infection of the inner lining of the heart. | Correct breakdown: endo- = within/inner; cardi/o = heart; -itis = inflammation. | Other choices: myocarditis = my/o muscle + cardi/o heart + -itis; pericarditis = peri- around + cardi/o heart + -itis; valvulitis = valvul/o valve + -itis.

The condition of __________ is commonly known as tooth decay. | a. dental caries | b. dental plaque | c. gingivitis | d. periodontal disease

a. dental caries | Explanation: Dental caries is tooth decay. | Correct breakdown: dental = dent/o tooth + -al pertaining to; caries = decay. | Other choices: dental plaque is adherent biofilm; gingivitis = gingiv/o gums + -itis inflammation; periodontal disease = peri- around + odont/o tooth + -al, disease of tooth-supporting tissues.

Henry was diagnosed as having an inflammation of the bone marrow. Which term describes this condition? | a. encephalitis | b. meningitis | c. myelitis | d. myelosis

c. myelitis | Explanation: Myelitis can mean inflammation of spinal cord or bone marrow depending on context; here the question asks bone marrow. | Correct breakdown: myel/o = bone marrow or spinal cord; -itis = inflammation. | Other choices: encephalitis = encephal/o brain + -itis; meningitis = mening/o meninges + -itis; myelosis = myel/o marrow/cord + -osis condition, not specifically inflammation.

The term __________ describes the unnatural and irresistible urge to pull out one's own hair. | a. acrophobia | b. agoraphobia | c. kleptomania | d. trichotillomania

d. trichotillomania | Explanation: Trichotillomania is the irresistible urge to pull out one's hair. | Correct breakdown: trich/o = hair; till/o or tillein = pull; -mania = compulsive preoccupation/behavior. | Other choices: acrophobia = acr/o height + -phobia fear; agoraphobia = agora open/public place + -phobia; kleptomania = klept/o stealing + -mania.

The term __________ describes drooping of the upper eyelid that is usually due to paralysis. | a. blepharoptosis | b. dacryocystitis | c. scleritis | d. synechia

a. blepharoptosis | Explanation: Blepharoptosis means drooping of the upper eyelid. | Correct breakdown: blephar/o = eyelid; -ptosis = drooping/prolapse. | Other choices: dacryocystitis = dacry/o tear + cyst/o sac + -itis, lacrimal sac inflammation; scleritis = scler/o sclera + -itis; synechia = adhesion, often in the eye.

The combining form that means old age is. | a. percuss/o | b. presby/o | c. prurit/o | d. pseud/o

b. presby/o | Explanation: Presby/o means old age. | Correct breakdown: presby/o = old age. | Other choices: percuss/o = strike/tap; prurit/o = itching; pseud/o = false.

Mr. Ramirez had a heart attack. His physician recorded this as a. | a. angina | b. a myocardial infarction | c. congestive heart failure | d. ischemic heart disease

b. a myocardial infarction | Explanation: Myocardial infarction is a heart attack caused by death of heart muscle from insufficient blood supply. | Correct breakdown: my/o = muscle; cardi/o = heart; -al = pertaining to; infarct/o = area of tissue death from blocked blood flow; -ion = process. | Other choices: angina is chest pain from ischemia; congestive heart failure is poor pump function; ischemic heart disease is the broader reduced-blood-flow disease category.

__________ is an abnormal increase in the number of red cells in the blood due to excess production of these cells by the bone marrow. | a. Anemia | b. Polycythemia | c. Thrombocytosis | d. Thrombocytopenia

b. Polycythemia | Explanation: Polycythemia means an abnormal increase in red blood cells. | Correct breakdown: poly- = many; cyt/o = cell; -emia = blood condition. | Other choices: anemia = reduced red-cell/hemoglobin capacity; thrombocytosis = thromb/o clot + cyt/o cell + -osis condition, high platelets; thrombocytopenia = thromb/o platelet + cyt/o cell + -penia deficiency, low platelets.

The common skin disorder __________ is characterized by flare-ups in which red papules covered with silvery scales occur on the elbows, knees, scalp, back, or buttocks. | a. ichthyosis | b. lupus erythematosus | c. psoriasis | d. rosacea

c. psoriasis | Explanation: Psoriasis is a chronic inflammatory skin disorder with erythematous papules/plaques and silvery scale. | Correct breakdown: psor/o = itching/scaly condition; -iasis/-sis = condition. | Other choices: ichthyosis = ichthy/o fish + -osis, dry fish-scale skin; lupus erythematosus is autoimmune disease; rosacea causes facial redness/flushing, not silvery plaques.

__________ is a group of disorders involving the parts of the brain that control thought, memory, and language. | a. Alzheimer's disease | b. Catatonic behavior | c. Persistent vegetative state | d. Reye's syndrome

a. Alzheimer's disease | Explanation: Alzheimer's disease is a progressive neurodegenerative disorder affecting memory, thinking, and language. | Correct breakdown: Alzheimer is an eponym, not a word-part term. | Other choices: catatonic behavior is abnormal motor/behavior state; persistent vegetative state is severe consciousness disorder; Reye's syndrome is acute encephalopathy/liver dysfunction, usually in children.

A/An __________ is a physician who specializes in physical medicine and rehabilitation with the focus on restoring function. | a. exercise physiologist | b. orthopedist | c. physiatrist | d. rheumatologist

c. physiatrist | Explanation: A physiatrist is a physician specializing in physical medicine and rehabilitation. | Correct breakdown: physi/o = physical/nature; -iatrist = physician specialist. | Other choices: exercise physiologist studies exercise function but is not a rehabilitation physician; orthopedist = orth/o straight + ped/o child originally, bone/joint specialist; rheumatologist = rheumat/o flow/inflammation + -logist specialist, arthritis/autoimmune specialist.

The term __________ describes a bone disorder of unknown cause that destroys normal bone structure and replaces it with fibrous tissue. | a. costochondritis | b. fibrous dysplasia | c. osteomyelitis | d. periostitis

b. fibrous dysplasia | Explanation: Fibrous dysplasia is abnormal replacement of normal bone with fibrous tissue. | Correct breakdown: fibr/o = fiber; -ous = pertaining to; dys- = abnormal; -plasia = formation/development. | Other choices: costochondritis = cost/o rib + chondr/o cartilage + -itis; osteomyelitis = oste/o bone + myel/o marrow + -itis; periostitis = peri- around + oste/o bone + -itis.

Slight paralysis of one side of the body is known as. | a. hemiparesis | b. hemiplegia | c. myoparesis | d. quadriplegia

a. hemiparesis | Explanation: Hemiparesis means slight or partial weakness/paralysis of one side of the body. | Correct breakdown: hemi- = half; -paresis = slight paralysis/weakness. | Other choices: hemiplegia = hemi- half + -plegia paralysis, total paralysis of one side; myoparesis = my/o muscle + -paresis; quadriplegia = quadri- four + -plegia, paralysis of all four limbs.

The __________ are the specialized cells that play an important role in blood clotting. | a. basophils | b. erythrocytes | c. leukocytes | d. thrombocytes

d. thrombocytes | Explanation: Thrombocytes are platelets, the specialized blood cells involved in clotting. | Correct breakdown: thromb/o = clot; cyt/o = cell; -e = noun ending. | Other choices: basophils = bas/o base + -phil attraction, granulocytic leukocytes; erythrocytes = erythr/o red + cyt/o cell, red blood cells; leukocytes = leuk/o white + cyt/o cell, white blood cells.

The term __________ describes blood in the urine. | a. hemangioma | b. hematemesis | c. hematoma | d. hematuria

d. hematuria | Explanation: Hematuria means blood in the urine. | Correct breakdown: hemat/o = blood; -uria = urine condition. | Other choices: hemangioma = hem/o blood + angi/o vessel + -oma tumor; hematemesis = hemat/o blood + emesis vomiting; hematoma = hemat/o blood + -oma mass/collection.

The __________ receives the sound vibrations and relays them to the auditory nerve fibers. | a. cochlea | b. eustachian tube | c. organ of Corti | d. semicircular canal

c. organ of Corti | Explanation: The organ of Corti receives sound vibrations in the cochlea and relays them to auditory nerve fibers. | Correct breakdown: Corti is an eponym; organ is a structure. | Other choices: cochlea is the spiral inner-ear chamber; eustachian tube connects middle ear to nasopharynx; semicircular canals detect balance/rotation.

The __________ patrol the body, searching for antigens that produce infections. When such a cell is found, these cells grab, swallow, and internally break apart the captured antigen. | a. B cells | b. dendritic cells | c. lymphokines | d. T cells

b. dendritic cells | Explanation: Dendritic cells capture antigens and present them to lymphocytes, helping immune surveillance. | Correct breakdown: dendrit/o = branching/tree-like; -ic = pertaining to. | Other choices: B cells make antibodies; lymphokines are signaling molecules; T cells mediate cellular immunity but are not primarily the antigen-grabbing presenting cells described.

The medical term for the congenital condition commonly known as clubfoot is. | a. hallux valgus | b. rickets | c. spasmodic torticollis | d. talipes

d. talipes | Explanation: Talipes is the congenital condition commonly called clubfoot. | Correct breakdown: tali- = ankle/ankle bone; pes = foot. | Other choices: hallux valgus = great toe deviation/bunion; rickets = childhood bone-softening disease; spasmodic torticollis = tort/i twisted + coll/o neck, involuntary neck spasm.

A __________ is a normal scar resulting from the healing of a wound. | a. callus | b. cicatrix | c. crepitus | d. keloid

b. cicatrix | Explanation: Cicatrix means a normal scar after wound healing. | Correct breakdown: cicatric/o = scar; -ix = noun ending. | Other choices: callus is thickened skin or bone-healing tissue; crepitus is crackling/grating; keloid is an overgrown hypertrophic scar.

The __________ is commonly known as the collar bone. | a. clavicle | b. olecranon | c. patella | d. sternum

a. clavicle | Explanation: The clavicle is the collar bone. | Correct breakdown: clavicul/o = clavicle/collarbone. | Other choices: olecranon is the elbow process of the ulna; patella is kneecap; sternum is breastbone.

__________ are spiral-shaped bacteria that have flexible walls and are capable of movement. | a. Bacilli | b. Spirochetes | c. Staphylococcus | d. Streptococcus

b. Spirochetes | Explanation: Spirochetes are spiral-shaped, flexible, motile bacteria. | Correct breakdown: spir/o = coil/spiral; -chete = hair/bristle-like organism. | Other choices: bacilli are rod-shaped bacteria; Staphylococcus = staphyl/o clusters + coccus berry/sphere; Streptococcus = strept/o chains + coccus sphere.

A/An __________ is a malignant tumor usually involving the upper shaft of long bones, the pelvis, or knee. | a. adenocarcinoma | b. Hodgkin's lymphoma | c. osteochondroma | d. osteosarcoma

d. osteosarcoma | Explanation: Osteosarcoma is a malignant bone tumor often involving long bones around the knee or upper arm. | Correct breakdown: oste/o = bone; sarc/o = flesh/connective tissue; -oma = tumor. | Other choices: adenocarcinoma = aden/o gland + carcin/o cancer + -oma; Hodgkin's lymphoma = malignant lymphoid cancer with Reed-Sternberg cells; osteochondroma = oste/o bone + chondr/o cartilage + -oma, usually benign.

Which of these diseases is transmitted to humans by mosquito or tick bites? | a. cytomegalovirus | b. human immunodeficiency virus | c. rabies | d. West Nile virus

d. West Nile virus | Explanation: West Nile virus is transmitted to humans mainly through mosquito bites. | Correct breakdown: West Nile is a geographic name; virus is the pathogen type. | Other choices: cytomegalovirus spreads via body fluids; HIV spreads through blood/sexual/perinatal exposure; rabies usually spreads through bites/saliva of infected mammals, not mosquito or tick bites.

__________ involves compression of nerves and blood vessels due to swelling within the enclosed space created by the fascia that separates groups of muscles. | a. Chronic fatigue syndrome | b. Compartment syndrome | c. Fibromyalgia syndrome | d. Myofascial pain syndrome

b. Compartment syndrome | Explanation: Compartment syndrome occurs when pressure rises inside a closed fascial compartment, compressing nerves and blood vessels. | Correct breakdown: compartment = enclosed space; syndrome = syn- together + -drome running/course, a set of signs/symptoms. | Other choices: chronic fatigue syndrome centers on persistent fatigue; fibromyalgia syndrome involves widespread pain; myofascial pain syndrome = my/o muscle + fasci/o fascia, trigger-point pain.

A/An __________, also known as a boil, is a large, tender, swollen area caused by a staphylococcal infection around a hair follicle or sebaceous gland. | a. abscess | b. carbuncle | c. furuncle | d. pustule

c. furuncle | Explanation: Correction note: the original answer key said d. pustule, but a boil is a furuncle. Furuncle means a staphylococcal infection of a hair follicle forming a painful boil. | Correct breakdown: furuncul/o = boil; -e = noun ending. | Other choices: abscess = localized pus collection; carbuncle = cluster of connected furuncles; pustule = small pus-filled skin lesion, which may be part of a boil but is not the boil itself.

Which term refers to a class of drugs that relieves pain without affecting consciousness? | a. analgesic | b. barbiturate | c. hypnotic | d. sedative

a. analgesic | Explanation: An analgesic relieves pain without causing loss of consciousness. | Correct breakdown: an- = without; alges/o = pain; -ic = pertaining to. | Other choices: barbiturate is a sedative-hypnotic drug class; hypnotic induces sleep; sedative calms or reduces excitement.

Fine muscle tremors, a mask-like facial expression, and a shuffling gait are all symptoms of the progressive condition known as __________. | a. multiple sclerosis | b. muscular dystrophy | c. myasthenia gravis | d. Parkinson's disease

d. Parkinson's disease | Explanation: Parkinson's disease causes tremor, mask-like facies, rigidity, bradykinesia, and shuffling gait. | Correct breakdown: Parkinson is an eponym, not a word-part term. | Other choices: multiple sclerosis is CNS demyelination; muscular dystrophy is inherited muscle degeneration; myasthenia gravis = my/o muscle + -asthenia weakness + gravis severe, autoimmune neuromuscular weakness.

__________, formerly known as blood poisoning, is a systemic condition caused by the spread of microorganisms and their toxins via the circulating blood. | a. Septicemia | b. Botulism | c. Tetanus | d. Toxoplasmosis

a. Septicemia | Explanation: Septicemia, historically called blood poisoning, refers to bloodstream infection/systemic spread of microorganisms or toxins; current clinical usage often emphasizes sepsis. | Correct breakdown: septic/o = infection/putrefaction; -emia = blood condition. | Other choices: botulism is toxin-mediated paralysis; tetanus is Clostridium tetani neurotoxin disease; toxoplasmosis = Toxoplasma infection + -osis condition.

During her pregnancy, Ruth had a skin condition commonly known as the mask of pregnancy. The medical term for this condition is __________. | a. chloasma | b. albinism | c. melanosis | d. vitiligo

a. chloasma | Explanation: Chloasma is patchy hyperpigmentation of the face, often called the mask of pregnancy. | Correct breakdown: chloas/o = greenish/yellowish discoloration; -ma = condition. | Other choices: albinism = albin/o white + -ism condition, absent pigment; melanosis = melan/o black pigment + -osis; vitiligo is patchy loss of pigment.

__________ is caused by the failure of the bones of the limbs to grow to an appropriate length. | a. Acromegaly | b. Gigantism | c. Hyperpituitarism | d. Short stature

d. Short stature | Explanation: Short stature is the growth outcome described when limb bones fail to grow to expected length. | Correct breakdown: short + stature are plain English components, not a classical medical term. | Other choices: acromegaly = acr/o extremities + -megaly enlargement in adults; gigantism = excessive childhood growth; hyperpituitarism = hyper- excessive + pituitar/o pituitary + -ism condition.

In a __________ fracture, one of the bones is crushed. | a. comminuted | b. compound | c. compression | d. spiral

c. compression | Explanation: Correction note: the original answer key said a. comminuted, but a crushed bone is a compression fracture. | Correct breakdown: compression = com- together + press/o press + -ion process, bone is compressed/crushed. | Other choices: comminuted = broken into many fragments; compound/open = fracture communicates through skin; spiral = twisting fracture line.

The combining form that means vertebra or vertebral column is __________. | a. synovi/o | b. spondyl/o | c. scoli/o | d. splen/o

b. spondyl/o | Explanation: Spondyl/o means vertebra or vertebral column. | Correct breakdown: spondyl/o = vertebra/spine. | Other choices: synovi/o = synovial membrane/fluid; scoli/o = crooked/curved; splen/o = spleen.

Which heart chamber receives oxygen-poor blood from all tissues, except the lungs? | a. left atrium | b. left ventricle | c. right atrium | d. right ventricle

c. right atrium | Explanation: The right atrium receives oxygen-poor blood returning from systemic tissues via the venae cavae, except blood returning from the lungs. | Correct breakdown: right = side; atrium = upper heart chamber. | Other choices: left atrium receives oxygen-rich pulmonary venous blood; left ventricle pumps to body; right ventricle pumps to lungs.

Which substance is commonly known as good cholesterol? | a. high-density lipoprotein cholesterol | b. homocysteine | c. low-density lipoprotein cholesterol | d. triglycerides

a. high-density lipoprotein cholesterol | Explanation: High-density lipoprotein cholesterol is commonly called good cholesterol because it participates in reverse cholesterol transport. | Correct breakdown: high-density = relatively dense; lip/o = fat; protein = protein; cholesterol = sterol lipid. | Other choices: homocysteine is an amino acid; low-density lipoprotein is commonly called bad cholesterol; triglycerides are circulating fats.

Which symbol means less than? | a. > | b. ≥ | c. < | d. ≤

c. < | Explanation: The less-than symbol is

When medication is placed under the tongue and allowed to dissolve slowly, this is known as __________ administration. | a. oral | b. parenteral | c. sublingual | d. topical

c. sublingual | Explanation: Sublingual administration means medication is placed under the tongue. | Correct breakdown: sub- = under; lingu/o = tongue; -al = pertaining to. | Other choices: oral = or/o mouth + -al, swallowed/by mouth; parenteral = para- beside/other than + enter/o intestine + -al, by injection route; topical = applied to body surface.

A sonogram is the image created by __________. | a. computerized tomography | b. fluoroscopy | c. magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) | d. ultrasonography

d. ultrasonography | Explanation: A sonogram is the image produced by ultrasonography. | Correct breakdown: son/o = sound; -gram = record/image. Ultrasonography = ultra- beyond + son/o sound + -graphy recording. | Other choices: computerized tomography makes CT images; fluoroscopy uses real-time x-ray; MRI uses magnetic resonance.

Which combining form means red? | a. melan/o | b. leuk/o | c. erythr/o | d. cyan/o

c. erythr/o | Explanation: Erythr/o means red. | Correct breakdown: erythr/o = red. | Other choices: melan/o = black/dark; leuk/o = white; cyan/o = blue.

The surgical puncture of the eardrum with a needle to remove fluid or pus from an infected middle ear is known as __________. | a. abdominocentesis | b. arthrocentesis | c. thoracentesis | d. tympanocentesis

d. tympanocentesis | Explanation: Tympanocentesis is surgical puncture of the eardrum to remove fluid or pus. | Correct breakdown: tympan/o = eardrum; -centesis = surgical puncture to remove fluid. | Other choices: abdominocentesis = abdomin/o abdomen + -centesis; arthrocentesis = arthr/o joint + -centesis; thoracentesis = thorac/o chest + -centesis.

The term __________ describes inflammation of the gallbladder. | a. cholecystectomy | b. cholecystitis | c. cholecystotomy | d. cholelithiasis

b. cholecystitis | Explanation: Cholecystitis means inflammation of the gallbladder. | Correct breakdown: cholecyst/o = gallbladder; -itis = inflammation. | Other choices: cholecystectomy = gallbladder removal; cholecystotomy = incision into gallbladder; cholelithiasis = chole/o bile/gall + lith/o stone + -iasis condition.

The term __________ means vomiting. | a. emesis | b. epistaxis | c. reflux | d. singultus

a. emesis | Explanation: Emesis means vomiting. | Correct breakdown: emes/o = vomiting; -is = noun ending. | Other choices: epistaxis is nosebleed; reflux is backward flow; singultus is hiccup.

The bluish discoloration of the skin caused by a lack of adequate oxygen is known as __________. | a. cyanosis | b. erythema | c. jaundice | d. pallor

a. cyanosis | Explanation: Cyanosis is bluish skin discoloration from inadequate oxygenation. | Correct breakdown: cyan/o = blue; -osis = abnormal condition. | Other choices: erythema = erythr/o red + -ema condition, redness; jaundice is yellow discoloration from bilirubin; pallor is paleness.

__________ is a disorder of the adrenal glands due to excessive production of aldosterone. | a. Conn's syndrome | b. Crohn's disease | c. Cushing's syndrome | d. Raynaud's phenomenon

a. Conn's syndrome | Explanation: Conn's syndrome is primary aldosteronism, excessive aldosterone from the adrenal glands. | Correct breakdown: Conn is an eponym; syndrome = set of findings. | Other choices: Crohn's disease is inflammatory bowel disease; Cushing's syndrome is excess cortisol; Raynaud's phenomenon is digital vasospasm.

A/An __________ is any substance that the body regards as being foreign. | a. allergen | b. antibody | c. antigen | d. immunoglobulin

c. antigen | Explanation: An antigen is any substance the immune system recognizes as foreign and can respond to. | Correct breakdown: anti- = against; -gen = producing/generating. | Other choices: allergen is an antigen that triggers allergy; antibody = anti- against + body, immune protein made by B cells; immunoglobulin is an antibody protein class.

Which condition has purple discolorations on the skin due to bleeding underneath the skin? | a. dermatosis | b. pruritus | c. purpura | d. suppuration

c. purpura | Explanation: Purpura is purple skin discoloration from bleeding under the skin. | Correct breakdown: purpur/o = purple; -a = noun ending. | Other choices: dermatosis = dermat/o skin + -osis condition; pruritus = itching; suppuration = suppur/o pus formation + -ation process.

__________ is an excessive fear of spiders. | a. Acrophobia | b. Agoraphobia | c. Arachnophobia | d. Claustrophobia

c. Arachnophobia | Explanation: Arachnophobia is excessive fear of spiders. | Correct breakdown: arachn/o = spider; -phobia = fear. | Other choices: acrophobia = fear of heights; agoraphobia = fear/anxiety in open or public places; claustrophobia = fear of enclosed spaces.

A band of fibrous tissue that holds structures together abnormally is a/an __________. | a. adhesion | b. ankylosis | c. contracture | d. ligation

a. adhesion | Explanation: An adhesion is an abnormal band of fibrous tissue binding structures together. | Correct breakdown: adhes/o = stick to; -ion = process/condition. | Other choices: ankylosis = joint stiffness/fusion; contracture = permanent shortening; ligation = ligat/o bind/tie + -ion, tying off a vessel or structure.

Which procedure is performed to treat spider veins? | a. blepharoplasty | b. Botox | c. liposuction | d. sclerotherapy

d. sclerotherapy | Explanation: Sclerotherapy treats spider veins by injecting a sclerosing agent to scar/close the vein. | Correct breakdown: scler/o = hard; -therapy = treatment. | Other choices: blepharoplasty = blephar/o eyelid + -plasty repair; Botox is botulinum toxin injection; liposuction = lip/o fat + suction removal.

The instrument used to view the interior of the ear canal is known as a/an __________. | a. anoscope | b. ophthalmoscope | c. otoscope | d. speculum

c. otoscope | Explanation: An otoscope is used to view the ear canal and tympanic membrane. | Correct breakdown: ot/o = ear; -scope = instrument for viewing. | Other choices: anoscope = an/o anus + -scope; ophthalmoscope = ophthalm/o eye + -scope; speculum opens a canal/cavity for inspection.

Which condition is breast cancer at its earliest stage before the cancer has broken through the wall of the milk duct? | a. ductal carcinoma in situ | b. infiltrating lobular carcinoma | c. inflammatory breast cancer | d. invasive lobular carcinoma

a. ductal carcinoma in situ | Explanation: Ductal carcinoma in situ is early-stage noninvasive breast cancer in a milk duct before invasion through the duct wall. | Correct breakdown: ductal = duct + -al pertaining to; carcin/o = cancer; -oma = tumor; in situ = in its original place. | Other choices: infiltrating/invasive terms mean spread into surrounding tissue; lobular involves breast lobules rather than ducts.

Enlarged and swollen veins at the lower end of the esophagus are known as __________. | a. esophageal aneurisms | b. esophageal varices | c. hemorrhoids | d. varicose veins

b. esophageal varices | Explanation: Esophageal varices are enlarged swollen veins at the lower esophagus. | Correct breakdown: esophag/o = esophagus; varic/o = dilated vein; -es = plural. | Other choices: aneurysm = localized arterial dilation; hemorrhoids are varices in the anorectal region; varicose veins usually refer to superficial leg veins.

__________ is a progressive autoimmune disorder characterized by scattered patches of demyelination of nerve fibers of the brain and spinal cord. | a. Lupus erythematosus | b. Multiple sclerosis | c. Muscular dystrophy | d. Spina bifida

b. Multiple sclerosis | Explanation: Multiple sclerosis is autoimmune demyelination with scattered plaques in the brain and spinal cord. | Correct breakdown: multiple = many; scler/o = hardening/scar; -osis = condition. | Other choices: lupus erythematosus is systemic autoimmune disease; muscular dystrophy is muscle degeneration; spina bifida is congenital neural tube defect.

The abdominal region located below the stomach is known as the __________ region. | a. epigastric | b. hypogastric | c. left hypochondriac | d. umbilical

b. hypogastric | Explanation: The hypogastric region is the lower central abdominal region below the stomach/umbilical area. | Correct breakdown: hypo- = below; gastr/o = stomach; -ic = pertaining to. | Other choices: epigastric = epi- above + gastr/o stomach; left hypochondriac = hypo- below + chondr/o cartilage/ribs on left; umbilical surrounds the navel.

Which of these sexually transmitted diseases is a bacterial infection? | a. acquired immunodeficiency syndrome | b. gonorrhea | c. genital herpes | d. trichomoniasis

b. gonorrhea | Explanation: Gonorrhea is a bacterial sexually transmitted infection caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae. | Correct breakdown: gonorrhea is historically gon/o seed/sexual + -rrhea flow/discharge. | Other choices: acquired immunodeficiency syndrome is caused by HIV, a virus; genital herpes is viral HSV infection; trichomoniasis is a protozoal infection.

Narrowing of the opening of the foreskin so that it cannot be retracted to expose the glans penis is known as __________. | a. balanitis | b. Peyronie's disease | c. phimosis | d. priapism

c. phimosis | Explanation: Phimosis is narrowing/tightness of the foreskin opening so it cannot retract over the glans. | Correct breakdown: phim/o = muzzle/closure; -osis = condition. | Other choices: balanitis = balan/o glans penis + -itis inflammation; Peyronie's disease is fibrous penile curvature; priapism is prolonged painful erection.

A/An __________ is an exfoliative screening biopsy for the detection and diagnosis of conditions of the cervix and surrounding tissues. | a. endometrial biopsy | b. lymph node dissection | c. Papanicolaou test | d. sentinel node biopsy

c. Papanicolaou test | Explanation: The Papanicolaou test, or Pap test, is exfoliative cytology screening of cervical cells. | Correct breakdown: Papanicolaou is an eponym; test is the procedure. | Other choices: endometrial biopsy samples uterine lining; lymph node dissection removes lymph nodes; sentinel node biopsy samples first draining lymph node.

In the field of assisted fertilization, the abbreviation AMA stands for __________. | a. advanced maternal age | b. against medical advice | c. American Medical Association | d. American Mother's Association

a. advanced maternal age | Explanation: In assisted reproduction/obstetrics, AMA commonly means advanced maternal age. | Correct breakdown: advanced = increased; maternal = mother/pregnancy-related; age = age. | Other choices: against medical advice and American Medical Association are other common AMA meanings in different contexts; American Mother's Association is not the standard medical abbreviation here.

The term __________ describes turning the palm upward or forward. | a. circumduction | b. pronation | c. rotation | d. supination

d. supination | Explanation: Supination turns the palm upward or forward. | Correct breakdown: supin/o = lying on the back/face upward; -ation = process. | Other choices: circumduction = circum- around + duct/o lead, circular limb movement; pronation = pron/o face down + -ation, palm downward/backward; rotation = rotat/o turn + -ion.

The term __________ describes the inflammation of a vein. | a. angiitis | b. arteritis | c. phlebitis | d. phlebostenosis

c. phlebitis | Explanation: Phlebitis is inflammation of a vein. | Correct breakdown: phleb/o = vein; -itis = inflammation. | Other choices: angiitis = angi/o vessel + -itis, vessel inflammation generally; arteritis = arteri/o artery + -itis; phlebostenosis = phleb/o vein + -stenosis narrowing.