Past Patho Quizzes

Which protein is responsible for “unzipping” or “unwinding” the DNA structure at the beginning of DNA replication?

Helicase

During processing after transcription, what forms the anchor to attach the messenger RNA (mRNA) to the ribosome?

5’ cap

Which of the following is the most significant red flag that may indicate a genetic component to the disease?

A 38 year old female with heart disease

What is caused by a single base change and results in an amino acid change?

Missense mutation

What is the likelihood of an offspring inheriting an autosomal dominant disorder that is present in both parents?

100%

Which protein family is required for tight packaging of DNA?

Histone

Which of the following describes the effect of nonsense mutation?

As a result of the mutation, a premature stop codon is inserted and the protein is shortened or is not produced at all

What is the major transport mechanism for water in the cells?

Aquaporins

What disorder is usually detected during childhood that is a disorder of abnormal chromosome number?

Klinefelter syndrome

If an individual is homozygous for a given trait, this means they have?

Two identical alleles on two homozygous chromosomes

Down syndrome is a chromosomal disorder resulting in aneuploidy. How many copies of chromosomes exist on chromosome 21?

3

How many chromosomes are in the haploid cells produced during meiosis?

23

Which of the following scenarios requires active transport into the cell?

Molecules moving against the concentration gradient

Which of the following is true regarding Marfan syndrome?

Only one affected allele is required

You are reviewing the karotype of your patient’s genetic test. You are concerned about a mutation that frequently occurs 15q12.3. Which chromosome number and arm is the mutation frequently located?

#15, long arm

An adult patient has been prescribed trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim) for the treatment of a urinary tract infection. Shortly after taking the antibiotic, they notice a yellowish color to their sclera and skin. You suspect hemolytic anemia. What is the MOST likely reason for this occurrence?

Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency

During hemostasis, at what point do platelets aggregate to form a platelet plug?

After constriction of the blood vessel and activation of the platelets

Which of the following individuals is at greatest risk for developing a venous thrombosis (clot)?

a pregnant female

A 29-year-old female with a history of systemic lupus erythematosus has had three spontaneous abortions at 11 weeks and 13 weeks. She recently gave birth to a healthy infant at 34 weeks but was diagnosed with preeclampsia during her pregnancy. Which of the following is the most likely disorder that can account for these findings?

Antiphospholipid syndrome (APS)

An adult practicing a vegan lifestyle presents for routine bloodwork. You note that her hemoglobin and hematocrit levels are low. Which type of anemia is this patient MOST likely experiencing?

Iron deficiency anemia

The complete blood count (CBC) notes a patient's MCV as 75 fL (normal range: 80-100 fL). How should this finding be reported?

microcytic RBCs

What is the source of most of the iron required for new red blood cell (RBC) synthesis?

Iron circulating from the spleen after breakdown of aging red blood cells

Which transporter protein is responsible for carrying iron molecules to the bone marrow?

Transferrin

A patient with rheumatoid arthritis (RA) has developed anemia. The nurse practitioner knows that high doses of iron could increase which protein, stimulating a greater inflammatory response and decrease iron absorption.

Hepcidin

What is the end-product of the coagulation cascade?

Fibrin

Which hemoglobinopathy results due to a substitution of glutamate for valine resulting in a “sticky surface” for on the outside of the molecule?

Sickle cell disease

How many oxygen molecules can attach to a single hemoglobin molecule?

4

When Tissue Factor (TF) is released, which pathway of the clotting factor is activated?

Extrinsic pathway

Which of the following vitamins/electrolytes is considered necessary for DNA synthesis?

Folate

A nurse practitioner notes a patient's prothrombin time (PT) is significantly increased. What question should they ask the patient?

Are you taking warfarin (coumadin)?

Which of the following is a component of the first layer of host defense?

The skin produces sebum and sweat in glands within the dermal layer.

Which of the following is a component of the innate immune response?

Neutrophil

A construction worker presents to the emergency department after falling on a piece of metal rebar. The metal entered the anterior leg and exited the posterior calf. The NP orders a CBC. Which of the following lab findings should be expected?

Leukocytosis (increase in WBC) is present

Antihistamines decrease the response of which histamine-releasing cells?

Mast cells and basophils.

Which of the following cells are created and stimulated by B cells, to produce copious amounts of IgG antibodies?

Plasma cells

Which of the following locations in the body plays the most important role in the activation of an adaptive immune response?

Thymus

An unhoused person presents to the free clinic after not feeling well for 3 days. The patient reports nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and yellow skin color. They have been living in unsanitary conditions for the last month, and their close friends have had similar complaints. The NP suspects acute hepatitis A virus (HAV) infection. Which antibodies should be most abundant when performing serology?

IgM

A person born without the ability to create B and T cells has which type of immunodeficiency disorder?

primary immundeficiency

Which of the following cells is activated when an antigen presenting cell (APC) presents a pathogen to the cell's antibodies?

T cells

CD4 cells are only able to recognize antigens presented on which type of Major Histocompatibility Complex (MHC) of the Antigen Presenting Cell (APC)?

Type II

A patient received a tuberculin skin test 2 days ago. Today, the inoculation site is indurated more than 15 mm (normal < 5 mm). Which type of hypersensitivity reaction has occurred?

Type IV

How should you classify a tumor that has not breached the basement membrane?

Carcinoma in situ

A mutation in the tumor suppressor gene p53, would promote cancer growth through which action?

Evade apoptopsis

A tumor located on a long bone of a child is referred to as.

Osteosarcoma

A child receiving the influenza vaccine is an example of which type of immunity?

Adaptive immunity

Which of the following characteristics would the NP expect to see if a patient was colonized with an organism?

No inflammation

Which hormone is responsible for the release of an egg during ovulation?

Lutening hormone

Which of the following organisms is considered a prokaryote?

Bacteria

Mycobacterium tuberculosis evades eradication by secreting enzymes and antioxidants which protects it from macrophage ingestion. The “wall” that forms around the site of pathogen inoculation is referred to as (blank).

Granuloma

Which of the following is the most commonly reported sexually transmitted infection in the US?

Chlamydia trachomatis

Which of the following explains why antibiotics have the potential to allow C. difficile to become a pathogen resulting in copious diarrhea?

commensal bacteria are eradicated allowing pathogenic overgrowth

Which of the following disease processes can occur in late stage Lyme disease?

Meningitis

As HIV progresses, the clinician would expect to see which of the following reflected in the lab values?

CD8 count greater than CD4 count

Which of the following is a commonly affected site in a human host infected with Plasmodium species?

Erythrocytes

Which gene has been associated with resistant strains of Staphylococcal aureus?

mecA

Which of the following is considered a sequalae of an untreated acute Group A Streptococcal infection?

Rheumatic heart disease

The enzyme 5 alpha-reductase is responsible for converting testosterone into this hormone.

DHT

Which cells are responsible for secreting testosterone in the male reproductive system?

Leydig cells

In PCOS, which hormone levels are generally higher leading to excessive androgen production?

Luteinizing hormone

Which structure in the female reproductive organs is responsible for secreting progesterone?

Corpus luteum

Which of the following is NOT expected to be a component of an advanced atherosclerotic plaque?

Flexible and compliant arteries

The most likely pathogenesis of variant (Prinzmetal) angina is:

Coronary vasospasm

Which valvular disorder is most likely to lead to left-sided heart failure due to a narrowed aortic valve and the pressure exerting on the left ventricle?

Aortic valve stenosis

Primary (essential) hypertension account for (BLANK) of all hypertension cases.

90%

Which of the following is at risk of rupturing, creating emboli for distant sites, in late-stage atherosclerosis?

Atheroma

(BLANK) is a consequence of an acute myocardial infarction due to rupture of the chordae tendinea or papillary muscles.

Mitral regurgitation

Which of the following disease processes is NOT a major contributing factor to the development of atrial fibrillation (A-Fib)?

Which electrolyte is responsible for shifting into sarcolemma and sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR) for action potential propagation and contractile activity?

Calcium

Blood pressure support utilizing baroreceptors in the medulla and carotid arch is a type of (BLANK) homeostasis?

Short-term

Which coronary artery is responsible for supplying blood flow to the SA node?

Right coronary artery

An NP is reviewing the EKG of a patient who suffered a STEMI 1 month ago. They note a Q wave in leads II and III. They suspect the EKG change is due to myocardial muscle injury. What type of muscle injury is likely due to a STEMI?

Transmural injury

What mediator does arterial laminar flow promote that allows for vasodilation of the artery?

Nitric oxide

A patient reports leg cramping and pain while walking at the mall each morning. They state the pain improves after resting, but they are concerned because the symptoms are recurring. What is the most likely disease process?

Peripheral artery disease

A tumor of the adrenal gland has caused a patient to develop hypertension and excess fluid. An echocardiogram demonstrates an ejection fraction of 35%. Which condition has this patient developed?

Systolic heart failure

Which valve connects the left atrium and the left ventricle?

Mitral valve

Which of the following diseases is classified an obstructive lung disease?

Asthma

Which of the following is most likely to cause a regional ventilation/perfusion mismatch?

Pulmonary edema

A patient recovering from major abdominal surgery presents with sudden shortness of breath. She reports dyspnea with and without exertion and chest pain. She denies cough or lower extremity swelling. Her surgery was 1 week ago, and she has been recovering at home. What is the most likely cause of this patient's symptoms?

Pulmonary embolism

Which is a main function of surfactant?

Decreasing surface tension of the alveoli to assist inspiration

Which disease process would have high compliance but low elastance?

Emphysema

Which area of the respiratory system maintains a negative pressure gradient and is essential for inspiration?

Pleural space

A mutation to the cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator (CFTR) channel affects individuals with cystic fibrosis (CF) through which mechanism?

increases the viscosity of mucus by preventing the movement of water to the airways

The volume of air inspired and expired during normal respirations is referred to as (BLANK).

Tidal volume

Alpha-1 Antitrypsin protects the lungs through which action?

decreases protease enzymes and the destruction of lung tissue

Which of the following is considered a restrictive lung disease?

Pneumothorax

A patient performs a pulmonary function test (PFT). The initial FEV1 is 65%. What can the NP interpret from thus result?

the expiratory force is abnormal

What is TRUE regarding COPD?

purse lip breathing reduces airway collapse and support expiratory flow

You are reviewing the arterial blood gas (ABG) of your patient. You note the patient’s oxyhaemoglobin curve is shifted to the LEFT. What does this mean for the patient?

hemoglobin molecules have a greater affinity for oxygen

At what generation does gas exchange begin? 

Generation 17

How is the "amount of air remaining in the lungs after a normal and quiet exhale" defined?

Functional residual capacity