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85 Terms
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A dense, internal structure formed by some bacteria to withstand unfavorable environmental conditions is a:
Spore
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A substance added to culture media to prevent growth of certain bacteria is:
An inhibitor
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A medium, which inhibits the growth of some organisms and supports the growth of others, is:
Selective
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Endotoxins are usually associated with:
Gram negative bacteria
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The primary safety violation when a technologist has become infected with an agent from a specimen is:
Creating an aerosol
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Capsules are one of the factors controlling virulence because they:
Protect the bacterium from phagocytosis
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A consideration for collection and handling of specimens would be:
Using sterile technique in collecting the specimen
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Blood may be added to culture media as an enrichment and is also used as an indicator of:
Hemolysis
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Which of the following statements is true: most of the time we can live in peaceful coexistence with microorganisms capable of producing overt disease, if our normal host defenses are penetrated and bacteria gain access to tissues not normally infected, there is a significant probability of overt disease, the presence of relatively non virulent bacteria at a given body site often prevents colonization by more virulent species
All of the above
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While working in the laboratory a heavy amount of infectious agent is spilled on your cloth lab coat. The appropriate action would be to:
Remove it and autoclave it
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QC procedure in a microbiology laboratory must include:
Sterility testing of all media, reagents, stains, monitoring temperatures
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Which of the following could be fomites: bedpans, sheets, tourniquets, tables
All of the above
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Bacteria with a strict metabolic requirement for oxygen could conceivably be which of the following
Obligate aerobe
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Criteria for rejection of a sample for culture is/are:
Improperly labeled or leaky specimens
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A general consideration for collection and handling of specimens would be:
Collect from a site that is representative of the infection
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Most blood agar media utilizes which type and concentration of blood:
5% sheep blood
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When preparing direct smears, the best part of the specimen to use is:
Blood, mucus, pus
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Sputum specimens must be assessed for quality by:
Counting the numbers of epithelial cells per lpf
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A direct smear may assist the lab scientist to
Determine the quality of the specimen
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A direct smear may assist the medical lab scientist to
Know what organisms are expected to grow
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Properly preserved specimens for transport to the lab may prevent which of the following:
Loss of organisms due to drying, changes in pH or temperature
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The bacterial structure that is usually composed of polysaccharides and affords protection from phagocytosis is the:
- Prevent aerosolization - Flame loops frequently - Don't sniff the plates directly - Use sterile technique - Dispose of used utensils and plates appropriately - Autoclave contaminated materials if possible - Soak contaminated surfaces in 10% bleach for 15-20 min
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Specimen collection and rejection
- Collect from an area representative of infection - Collect using sterile technique - Reject if specimen is leaking, improperly labeled, improperly stored, improperly collected
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Endotoxins
gn bacteria
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Exotoxins
gp bacteria
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Spores
protect bacteria from harsh environments
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Pili and fibriae
nonflagellar, proteinaeious, hairlike appendages that adhere bacterial cells to one another and to host cells
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Flagellum
locomotion
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Capsules
polysaccharide polymers, may be polypeptides. Helps the pathogen evade phagocytosis. Removed by boiling suspension.
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What does an inhibitor do in the media?
- Inhibitor prevents growth of certain species of bacteria, but can grow other species; not necessarily selective (able to grow one certain species)
- Use is to prevent growth of an already-identified bacteria or normal flora
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Streptococcus pneumoniae
Gp cocci in pairs or short chains, lancet shaped
Alpha hemolysis on SBA, round, mucoid, dome-shaped appearance
Tests: Catalase neg, alpha hemolysis, P disk sensitive, PYR neg, BEA neg
Which of the following would affect the results of a disc diffusion susceptibility test by making the organism appear more resistant?
Too many organisms in the inoculum
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Antibiotics that act by inhibiting synthesis of the bacterial cell wall include:
Penicillin, methicillin, cephalosporins
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The ratio of the amount of antimicrobial that is toxic to the amount, which is effective, is known as:
The therapeutic index
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Staphylococcus aureus would most likely be resistant to:
Penicillin
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Staphylococcus epidermidis is:
occasionally pathogenic in wounds, bacteremia, and prosthetic valve and joint infections
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You have isolated a yellow colony on 5% sheep blood agar. A gram stain shows the organism to be large gram positive cocci in clusters. Subsequent tests yield the following results: catalase +, Tube coag =, slide coag =, does not ferment glucose. The organism is:
Micrococcus sp.
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The test used to differentiate a Micrococcus species from a Staphylococcus species, is:
Ability to ferment glucose
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The definitive test for the differentiation of Staphylococcus aureus from other Staphyloccocus species is:
Coagulase test
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The ability to produce the enzyme coagulase is used as a means of identifying:
Staphylococcus aureus
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The following results were observed on a gram positive coccus isolated from a wound specimen: coag at 4 hrs = +, novobiocin = 5 mm, hemolysis on BAP = beta, DNase = +, Mannitol salt Agar = +. What is the most probable identification?
Staph aureus
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What body site is Strep pneumoniae part of the normal flora.
Respiratory tract
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Which of the following is characteristic of Streptococcus pyogenes?
Bacitracin sensitive
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Streptococcal Toxic Shock Syndrome, characterized by a bright red, sandpaper-textured rash is caused by:
Gp A Strep
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Colonies of Streptococcus pneumoniae on blood agar would most closely resemble colonies of:
Streptococcus viridans group
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The optochin (ethylhydrocupreine hydrochloride) identification test consists of placing optochin discs on blood agar plates heavily inoculated with the suspected organism. If there is a zone of inhibition of > 14 mm surrounding the disc following overnight incubation at 35ºC, the colony most likely is:
Streptococcus pneumoniae
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Streptococcus pneumoniae may be differentiated from alpha hemolytic streptococci on the basis of the:
Optochin disc test
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To differentiate Streptococcus pneumoniae from alpha hemolytic streptococcus viridans group:
Perform an optochin disc test
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Blood culture (two) on a newborn grew beta-hemolytic strep with the following reactions: CAMP test = +, hippurate hydrolysis = +, bile solubility = 0, 6.5% NaCl = 0, PYR = 0, bile esculin = 0, Bacitracin = R, SXT = R. What is the most likely identification?
Gp B strep
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The identification of Enterooccus is based on which test(s)?
Hydrolysis of bile esculin and PYR positive
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Differentiation of Enterococcus species from group D, non-enterococcus species, is important because:
Enterococci are often resistant to penicillin, the drug of choice for streptococcal infections
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A procedure, which directly determines beta-lactamase production by a microorganism, is based on detection of:
Color change resulting from the breaking of beta-lactam ring of a chromogenic cephalosporin
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Which of the following is (are) commonly tested for beta-lactamase production:
Haemophilus influenzae
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List a disease caused by Staphylococcal toxins
Toxic shock syndrome
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Why is it necessary to distinguish Staph aureus from coagulase negative Staph infections?
Staph aureus infections can be much more invasive
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Select the most appropriate test(s) and result(s), which would differentiate Staph epidermidis from Staph. Saprophyticus.
Novobiocin sensitive
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____________ is used to determine catalase reaction.
Hydrogen peroxide
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Staphylococcus epidermidis is characterized by:
Coagulase negative
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False positive catalase tests may result from:
Picking up agar from the blood plate
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What areas of the body harbor staph aureus as part of its normal microbial flora?
Nose & skin
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Which of the following is (are) useful in identifying group B streptococcus?
Camp test positive, hippurate positive
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The characteristic test which BEST distinguishes staphylococci from streptococci is the:
Catalase test
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A beta hemolytic Streptococcus is isolated from a throat culture. Which of the following tests would be of most value to the physician in evaluating the significance of the microorganism?
Bacitracin disc
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Streptococcal toxic shock syndrome produces a bright red rash due to production of:
Exotoxin
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The identification of Enterooccus is based on which test(s)?
Hydrolysis of bile esculin and PYR positive
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The gram stain morphology of Streptococcus pneumoniae is described as:
Gram positive lancet shaped diplococci
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Which of the following is characteristic of Streptococcus pyogenes?
Bacitracin sensitive
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Which of the following best describes Group B Streptococcus
Differentiation of Enterococcus species from group D, non-enterococcus species, is important because:
Enterococci are more often implicated in disease
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A positive Beta lactamase test indicates
Resistance to penicillin
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Which of the following statements concerning the beta lactamase test is FALSE
a negative test for beta-lactamase always correlates with sensitivity to Gentamicin
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Staph aureus is generally resistant to Penicillin G by what mechanism?
Beta lactamase production
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List the types of infections caused by Staph aureus:
Impetigo, boils, wound infections
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Under appropriate conditions of cultivation S. pneumoniae and alpha streptococcus give the same kind of hemolytic reaction on blood agar. Which of the following best describes this type of hemolytic activity?
Incomplete hemolysis–greening
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Necrotizing fasciitis is an extremely serious, rapidly progressing infection of the fascia caused by:
Gp A Strep
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A negative PYR test is helpful in identifying which of the following?