Comprehensive ANTH 1001 Evolution, Genetics, and Cell Biology Flashcards

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Last updated 1:16 PM on 9/25/26
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103 Terms

1
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What was Lamarck's theory?

Use strengthens and disuse weakens organs; acquired changes are inherited.

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Who said species were fixed and unchanging?

Carolus Linnaeus.

3
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What was Cuvier's catastrophism?

Sudden disasters cause geological change and extinctions, followed by repopulation.

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What was Hutton and Lyell's uniformitarianism?

Processes acting today also acted in the past; this implied an old Earth with time for gradual change.

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What did Malthus contribute?

Populations can grow faster than limited food supplies, creating competition.

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What did Darwin propose and publish?

Natural selection and common descent; On the Origin of Species (1859).

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Who independently developed natural selection?

Alfred Russel Wallace.

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Lamarck versus Darwin: where does change occur?

Lamarck: an individual changes during life and passes acquired traits on. Darwin: inherited variation already exists; trait frequencies change across generations.

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What are Darwin's four linked points?

High reproductive potential despite often stable population size; limited resources and competition; variation among individuals; advantageous inherited traits increase through differential reproduction.

10
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What does natural selection act on, and what evolves?

Selection acts on individual phenotypes; populations evolve as allele frequencies change across generations.

11
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What is a gene?

A DNA sequence associated with making a product, such as a protein.

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What is an allele?

An alternative form of a gene, such as R or w.

13
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Genotype versus phenotype?

Genotype is an allele combination (Rw); phenotype is the observable trait (round).

14
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Homozygous versus heterozygous?

Homozygous: same alleles (RR or ww). Heterozygous: different alleles (Rw).

15
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Dominant versus recessive?

A dominant allele shows in a heterozygote; a recessive phenotype requires two recessive copies in this simple model.

16
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What is the law of segregation?

The two alleles for a gene separate during gamete production, so each gamete gets one.

17
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What is independent assortment?

In the simplified unlinked-gene model, inheritance of one trait does not affect another.

18
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Rw × Rw: genotype and phenotype ratios?

1 RR : 2 Rw : 1 ww; 3 round : 1 wrinkled (if R is dominant).

19
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Rw × Rw: offspring percentages?

25% RR, 50% Rw, 25% ww; 75% dominant phenotype, 25% recessive.

20
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Yg × gg: what are the offspring?

50% Yg (yellow), 50% gg (green); both ratios are 1:1.

21
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What gametes can Rw,Ts produce?

RT, Rs, wT, ws.

22
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Two Rw,Ts parents: phenotype ratio?

9 round/tall : 3 round/short : 3 wrinkled/tall : 1 wrinkled/short.

23
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Why can there be more genotypes than phenotypes?

Different genotypes can produce the same visible trait.

24
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What are homologous chromosomes?

One maternal and one paternal chromosome with the same gene locations, potentially different alleles.

25
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What are sister chromatids and a centromere?

Replication makes two identical chromatids, temporarily joined at the centromere.

26
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Diploid versus haploid in humans?

Diploid: 46 chromosomes; haploid: 23.

27
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Mitosis: purpose and result?

Growth and maintenance in somatic cells; one division makes two genetically identical diploid cells.

28
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Meiosis: purpose and result?

Gamete production in germ-line cells; two divisions make four genetically different haploid cells.

29
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What happens in interphase?

Genes are active; DNA replicates before division.

30
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What happens in mitotic prophase and metaphase?

Chromosomes condense; then align at the cell center.

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What happens in mitotic anaphase and telophase?

Centromeres divide and sister chromatids separate; cytokinesis produces two cells.

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What happens in prophase I?

Synapsis pairs homologs; crossing-over exchanges DNA between them.

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What happens in metaphase I?

Homologous pairs align, with different pairs orienting independently.

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What separates in anaphase I?

Homologous chromosomes; centromeres do not divide and sisters stay together.

35
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Does DNA replicate between meiosis I and II?

No.

36
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What forms after meiosis II?

Four genetically different haploid cells.

37
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What happens in metaphase II and anaphase II?

Chromosomes align in each cell; centromeres divide and sister chromatids separate.

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What are two major sources of variation in meiosis?

Crossing-over in prophase I and independent orientation of homologous pairs in metaphase I.

39
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What is DNA made of?

A double helix of nucleotides; each has a phosphate, deoxyribose sugar, and nitrogenous base.

40
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Which DNA bases pair?

A with T; C with G.

41
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What does semiconservative replication mean?

Each copied DNA molecule has one old strand and one new strand.

42
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Replication, transcription, translation: what does each make?

Replication: DNA from DNA; transcription: mRNA from DNA; translation: polypeptide from mRNA.

43
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DNA versus mRNA: three differences?

DNA is double-stranded, uses deoxyribose and T; mRNA is single-stranded, uses ribose and U.

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Where do these processes occur in the guide's model?

Replication and transcription in the nucleus; translation at ribosomes in cytoplasm.

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Which RNA bases pair?

A with U; C with G.

46
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What is a codon?

A three-base sequence that specifies an amino acid (or a translation signal).

47
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Why is the genetic code redundant?

There are 64 codons but only 20 amino acids; multiple codons can specify one amino acid.

48
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How many three-base codons are possible?

4³ = 64.

49
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What does tRNA do?

Carries an amino acid; its anticodon pairs with a complementary mRNA codon.

50
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Translate AUG UCA AAU.

Methionine - serine - asparagine.

51
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Structural versus regulatory genes?

Structural genes code for products such as hemoglobin; regulatory genes control when other genes switch on or off.

52
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Why can regulatory changes matter greatly?

Altered gene timing or expression can produce major anatomical differences even when many protein sequences are similar.

53
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What is a mutation?

A random change in a gene or chromosome that may be neutral, helpful, or harmful.

54
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What is the ultimate source of new alleles?

Mutation; selection influences whether heritable variants spread.

55
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Why does a mutation's effect depend on environment?

The same expressed change can affect survival or reproduction differently under different conditions.

56
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Which mutations can be inherited by offspring?

Mutations in sex cells or their precursors.

57
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Name three scales of mutation.

Point mutation, chromosomal rearrangement, chromosome-number imbalance.

58
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What is a point mutation?

A change in one nucleotide that may leave protein unchanged or affect function.

59
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What is chromosomal rearrangement?

A segment changes position or arrangement, potentially changing gene expression.

60
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What is chromosome-number imbalance?

Gain or loss of chromosomes, often with larger phenotypic effects.

61
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How can a point mutation be silent?

A changed codon can specify the same amino acid due to redundancy.

62
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Can an amino-acid change be neutral?

Yes, if it has no important functional effect.

63
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What example illustrates environmentally dependent effects?

Sickle-cell hemoglobin.

64
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What mutation rate estimate does the guide give?

About 1 × 10⁻⁵ per gene per cell generation.

65
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Why is mutation alone insufficient to explain much evolutionary change?

Its rate is low; it supplies variation on which other forces act.

66
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What estimate does the guide give for point mutations relative to parents?

About 36% of humans have at least one point mutation.

67
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How does mutation scale generally relate to effects?

Larger-scale changes generally have a greater chance and magnitude of phenotypic effect.

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Does dominant mean common, beneficial, or favored?

No, dominance describes expression in heterozygotes; frequency and fitness depend on evolutionary forces.

69
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What is discontinuous variation?

A few distinct categories; example: ABO blood groups.

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What is continuous variation?

Many graded values, often involving multiple genes; example: human height.

71
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What is polygeny?

Two or more genes contribute to one trait.

72
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How many genotypes at one diploid locus with a alleles?

a(a + 1)/2.

73
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One locus with two alleles: how many genotypes?

3: RR, Rw, ww.

74
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How many genotypes across G independently considered genes, each with a alleles?

[a(a + 1)/2]^G.

75
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ABO locus with three alleles: how many genotypes?

3² = 9.

76
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Two genes, each with two alleles: how many genotypes?

6: AA, BB, OO, AO, BO, AB.

77
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Ten genes, each with two alleles: how many genotypes?

3¹⁰ = 59,049.

78
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Why is genotypic variation often greater than phenotypic variation?

Dominance and interactions with the environment allow multiple genotypes to yield the same phenotype.

79
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What is heritability?

The share of phenotypic variation in a population attributable to genetic variation.

80
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What is the guide's simple heritability model?

P = G + E; heritability is G/P.

81
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Does heritability say what fraction of one person's trait is genetic?

No, it describes variation in a specific population and environment.

82
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Why does higher heritability help selection act?

Offspring are more likely to resemble parents for the selected trait.

83
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What is a population?

A community within which mating occurs.

84
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What is a gene pool?

All genes and alleles in a breeding population.

85
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What is allele frequency?

The proportion of a particular allele among all alleles at its locus.

86
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What is microevolution versus macroevolution?

Microevolution: allele-frequency change between generations; macroevolution: speciation across many generations.

87
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What are the five assumptions of Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?

Random mating; infinitely large population; no migration; no mutation; no natural selection.

88
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What does Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium predict?

With all assumptions met, allele and genotype frequencies remain constant across generations.

89
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What does p + q = 1 mean?

Frequencies of the two alleles A (p) and a (q) add to 1.

90
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What does p² + 2pq + q² = 1 mean?

Expected genotype frequencies: AA = p², Aa = 2pq, aa = q².

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If q = 0.40, find p, AA, Aa, and aa.

p = 0.60; p² = 0.36; 2pq = 0.48; q² = 0.16.

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If the recessive phenotype has frequency 0.16, what is q?

q² = 0.16, so q = 0.40.

93
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If q² = 0.09, find q, p, p², and 2pq.

q = 0.30; p = 0.70; p² = 0.49; 2pq = 0.42.

94
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What does genetic drift do?

In a finite population, it can change allele and genotype frequencies.

95
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What does nonrandom mating alone change?

Genotype frequencies, but not allele frequencies by itself.

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What do migration, mutation, and natural selection do to allele frequencies?

Each can change them and thus cause evolution.

97
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What does positive assortative mating or inbreeding do?

Similar individuals mate; homozygosity rises and heterozygosity falls.

98
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What does negative assortative mating or outbreeding do?

Dissimilar individuals mate; homozygosity falls and heterozygosity rises.

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What is the full course sequence?

DNA → mutation creates alleles → meiosis reshuffles alleles → fertilization produces genotypes → genotype plus environment influences phenotype → selection changes reproductive success → allele frequencies change.

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Which meiotic stage pairs or exchanges homologs?

Prophase I.