Primary Systems 1

The primary flight controls are manually controlled using _______________ linkage.

A. Direct

B. Hydraulic

C. Electrical

D. Mechanical

D. Mechanical

The secondary flight controls are __________________ controlled and operated.

A Hydraulically

B. Electrically

C. Electromechanically

D. Aerodynamically

C. Electromechanically

Which of the following is NOT a secondary flight control?

A. Control sticks

B. Elevator trim tab

C. Rudder trim tab

D. Trim aid device (TAD)

A. Control sticks

What is the purpose of the elevator system?

A. Controls movement of the aircraft about the roll axis

B. Changes the center of gravity of the aircraft to allow for climbs and descents

C. Controls movement of the aircraft about the pitch axis

D. Controls movement of the aircraft about the yaw axis

C. Controls movement of the aircraft about the pitch axis

Moving the control stick aft causes the trailing edge of the elevator to move ___________ and the nose of the aircraft to move _____________.

A. Up; up

B. Down; down

C. Down; up

D. Up; down

A. Up; up

The purpose of the elevator bobweight is to ________________.

A. Provide a balanced control feed

B. Aerodynamically balance the elevator

C. Assist the trim aid device (TAD)

D. Enhance control feedback and help prevent overstressing of the airframe under high G loading

D. Enhance control feedback and help prevent overstressing of the airframe under high G loading

The ailerons control movement of the aircraft about the _______________ axis.

A. Yaw

B. Vertical

C. Pitch

D. Roll

D. Roll

Which of the following is NOT true concerning the ground adjustable trim tabs?

A. Tabs are located on each aileron

B. Tabs are adjusted by maintenance personnel

C. Tabs can be used as a backup trim system in flight

D. Tabs adjust for stick neutral trim input to controls

C. Tabs can be used as a backup trim system in flight

Pilot control inputs cause the ailerons to deflect ___________________.

A. In the same direction

B. Upwards only

C. In first one, then the other direction

D. In opposite directions

D. In opposite directions

The purpose of the rudder is to rotate the aircraft about the _______________ axis.

A. Longitudinal

B. Yaw

C. Pitch

D. Roll

B. Yaw

When the pilot applies pressure to the left rudder pedal, the trailing edge of the rudder moves ________________ and the nose of the aircraft moves ____________________.

A. Left; right

B. Right; left

C. Left; left

D. Right; right

C. Left; left

Rudder centering springs provide a tendency for the rudder to return to neutral and _______________.

A. Reduce pilot workloads

B. Enhance control feedback

C. Prevent opposing control inputs

D. Provide inputs to the trim aid device (TAD)

B. Enhance control feedback

In the event of conflicting pilot aileron/elevator trim inputs, which cockpit trim switch has priority?

A. The switch that is depressed first has priority

B. The front cockpit

C. The rear cockpit

D. Neither cockpit; the trim system will not work in the case of simultaneous inputs

C. The rear cockpit

Where is the rudder trim switch located?

A. On the power control lever in each cockpit

B. On the control stick

C. On the power control lever in the aft cockpit only

D. On the trim control panel

A. On the power control lever in each cockpit

The aileron trim actuator causes deflection of _____________________________.

A. The right aileron only

B. Both ailerons

C. The aileron trim tabs

D. The left aileron only

B. Both ailerons

The TAD computes input to the rudder trim system based on __________________________.

A. Engine torque, airspeed, altitude, and pitch angle

B. Altitude, airspeed, pitch rate, and propeller RPM

C. Engine torque, rudder pedal, control forces, and altitude

D. Engine torque, airspeed, altitude, and pitch rate

D. Engine torque, airspeed, altitude, and pitch rate

The TAD preset takeoff settings will remain constant until __________________________.

A. Weight on wheels after landing

B. 40 KIAS and weight on wheels

C. 80 KIAS and weight on wheels

D. 80 KIAS and weight off wheels

D. 80 KIAS and weight off wheels

What happens to the trim aid switch when the trim interrupt button is pressed?

A. Power to the system is interrupted and the electromagnetic switch automatically moves to the OFF position

B. It will reset after running a self-test

C. It remains in the TRIM AID position until it is reset

D. Nothing

A. Power to the system is interrupted and the electromagnetic switch automatically moves to the OFF position

What kind of hydraulic system does the T-6B use?

A. An engine-driven, fluid pressurized system charged to 3000 +/- 120 psi

B. An electrically operated system charged to 2400 +/- 50 psi

C. An engine-driven, fluid pressurized system charged to 3000 +/- 150 psi

D. An electrically operated, hydraulically controlled system charged to 3500 +/- 225 psi

A. An engine-driven, fluid pressurized system charged to 3000 +/- 120 psi

The engine driven hydraulic pump pressurizes the hydraulic system to which of the following?

A. 1800 +/- 120 psi

B. 1800 +/- 150 psi

C. 3000 +/- 120 psi

D. 3000 +/- 150 psi

C. 3000 +/- 120 psi

The T-6B has a hydraulic system that uses fluid pressurized to 3000 +/- 120 psi.

A. True

B. False

A. True

What are the devices operated by the primary hydraulic system under normal operations?

A. Landing gear, flaps, speed brake, and flight controls

B. Landing gear/main gear doors, flaps, speed brake, and trim aid device

C. Landing gear/main gear inboard doors, flaps, speed brake, and nose wheel steering

D. Landing gear, main gear inboard doors, flaps, speed brake, and wheel brakes

C. Landing gear/main gear inboard doors, flaps, speed brake, and nose wheel steering

What is true about the reservoir piston located within the power package?

A. It keeps the reservoir pressurized using compressed helium gas

B. Protects the engine driven hydraulic pump by reducing the return side of the reservoir to 50 psi

C. It keeps the reservoir pressurized using compressed nitrogen gas

D. It releases excess pressure at 1790 psi

B. Protects the engine driven hydraulic pump by reducing the return side of the reservoir to 50 psi

What component in the power package isolates hydraulic pressure coming from the engine driven pump from the rest of the system when the emergency system is activated?

A. Slide valve

B. Reservoir piston

C. Firewall shutoff handle

D. 3500 psi pressure relief valve

A. Slide valve

The emergency hydraulic system operates which of the following?

A. Landing gear, flaps, main gear doors, speed brake

B. Landing gear, main inboard gear doors, flaps

C. Landing gear, flaps, speed brake

D. Landing gear, main inboard doors, flaps, and nose wheel steering

B. Landing gear, main inboard gear doors, flaps

If there is a loss of engine power, the primary system fails, or a failure of the battery bus the emergency hydraulic system is used to operate the ________________.

A. Landing gear, landing gear doors, flaps, and speed brake

B. Landing gear, main gear inboard doors, and flaps

C. Landing gear, main gear doors, nose gear doors, and flaps

D. Landing gear, flaps, and speed brake

B. Landing gear, main gear inboard doors, and flaps

The emergency hydraulic system _______________________________.

A. Provides 3000 +/- 120 psi to raise the landing gear and flaps

B. Has separate and independent hydraulic lines that ensure gear/flap operation if primary system fails

C. Shares the hydraulic lines leading to the actuators with the primary hydraulic system

D. Uses an engine-driven pump to produce pressure

B. Has separate and independent hydraulic lines that ensure gear/flap operation if primary system fails

Power for the landing gear controls is provided through a circuit breaker placarded LDG GR CONT, located on the ____________________.

A. Battery bus circuit breaker panels in the front and rear cockpit

B. Generator bus circuit breaker panels in the front and rear cockpit

C. Battery bus circuit breaker panel in the front cockpit only

D. Generator bus circuit breaker panel in the front cockpit only

C. Battery bus circuit breaker panel in the front cockpit only

The purpose of the normal landing gear extension/retraction system is to ___________________________.

A. Extend and retract the landing gear and retract gear doors only

B. Operate as a back up to the primary hydraulic system

C. Extend and retract the landing gear and extend doors only

D. Extend and retract the landing gear and all gear doors

D. Extend and retract the landing gear and all gear doors

The detent on the landing gear selector handle serves what purpose?

A. Prevents the slide valve assembly from "hammering"

B. Prevents the gear from being raised accidentally

C. Activates the red light in the handle

D. Prevents activation of the emergency gear selector

B. Prevents the gear from being raised accidentally

The normal indication that the gear and doors are fully retracted is _______________________.

A. Only the main gear door lights are illuminated

B. Three green lights

C. Three green lights and no red lights

D. No lights illuminated

D. No lights illuminated

The aural landing gear position warning safe guards against a gear up landing under which conditions?

A. Gear handle not down (regardless of gear conditions), PCL below mid-range position (~87% N1), airspeed below 120 KIAS and flaps up or takeoff

B. All gear not indicating down and locked with flaps LDG (regardless of gear door position, power setting, or airspeed)

C. There is weight on the wheels with the gear handle not DOWN

D. All of the above

D. All of the above

Prior to raising or lowering the landing gear, ensure airspeed is below _____________________.

A. 140 KIAS

B. 120 KIAS

C. 150 KIAS

D. 180 KIAS

C. 150 KIAS

The device responsible for activating the emergency hydraulic package's selector valve is the __________________________.

A. Emergency accumulator

B. Helium pre-charge

C. 3500 psi pressure release valve

D. Landing gear emergency extension handle

D. Landing gear emergency extension handle

When extending the gear using the emergency system, ______________________.

A. The power package slide valve routes fluid to the accumulator

B. The emergency system gear extension actuators are pressurized

C. The primary hydraulic system lines are pressurized to 3000 +/- 120 psi

D. Hydraulic pressure from the emergency lines activates the normal landing gear actuators

D. Hydraulic pressure from the emergency lines activates the normal landing gear actuators

What happens when using the emergency system to extend the gear?

A. The gear position indicator panel will show two green and three red lights

B. The gear position indicator panel will show three red lights

C. The main gear inboard doors will remain open

D. The main gear inboard doors will remain closed

C. The main gear inboard doors will remain open

One of the major functions of the flaps is to _______________________.

A. Increase sink rate and increase airspeed during landing

B. Decrease airspeed needed for approach and decrease landing roll

C. Maintain sink rate, decrease drag, and increase airspeed during landing

D. Decrease sink rate and increase airspeed during landing

B. Decrease airspeed needed for approach and decrease landing roll

What is the purpose for flaps set to takeoff?

A. Decrease drag and lift to shorten ground run for takeoff

B. Increase lift with maximum increase in drag to shorten ground run for takeoff

C. Decrease drag to shorten ground run for takeoff

D. Produce the greatest lift with minimal drag to shorten ground run for takeoff

D. Produce the greatest lift with minimal drag to shorten ground run for takeoff

The T-6B utilizes a four-segmented split flap concept which are hydraulically operated and electrically controlled.

A. True

B. False

A. True

In normal operation, T-6B flaps are ______________ controlled and ________________ operated.

A. Mechanically; hydraulically

B. Electrically; hydraulically

C. Mechanically; electrically

D. Electrically; electrically

B. Electrically; hydraulically

When using the emergency hydraulic system to extend the flaps, the pilot must ________________.

A. Ensure the landing gear are down and use the emergency flap extension handle

B. Lower the flaps before pulling the emergency landing gear handle and extending the gear

C. Pull the emergency landing gear handle to extend the landing gear before extending the flaps

D. Ensure the speed brake is extended before moving the flap lever

C. Pull the emergency landing gear handle to extend the landing gear before extending the flaps

The flaps are operated using ___________________.

A. A three-position switch on the PCL quadrant front cockpit only

B. A spring-loaded three-position switch on the left instrument panel

C. A spring-loaded two-position switch located on the left instrument panel

D. A three-position switch on the PCL quadrant in front or rear cockpit

D. A three-position switch on the PCL quadrant in front or rear cockpit

The __________________ has the primary purpose of allowing you to decelerate and/or increase your descent rate without increasing your airspeed.

A. Flaps system

B. Landing gear

C. Speed brake

D. Wheel brake

C. Speed brake

The speed brake will retract if you perform the following:

A. The speed brake switch is moved aft, flaps are extended, or the PCL is moved to MAX

B. The speed brake switch is moved forward, flaps are extended, or the PCL is moved to MAX

C. The speed brake switch is moved forward, flaps are extended, or the PCL is reduced to MIN

D. The speed brake switch is moved forward or airspeed increases above 150 KIAS

B. The speed brake switch is moved forward, flaps are extended, or the PCL is moved to MAX

The speed brake is extended and retracted by a single actuator which is operated by ______________________.

A. Electric motors

B. Pneumatic pressure

C. Hydraulic pressure

D. Tie rods

C. Hydraulic pressure

Which method(s) are used to steer the aircraft on the ground?

A. Nose wheel steering and differential thrust

B. Nose wheel steering only

C. Rudder and/or differential braking only

D. Nose wheel steering, differential braking, and rudder

D. Nose wheel steering, differential braking, and rudder

The T-6B is maneuvered on the ground during taxi, takeoff, and landing using the following EXCEPT ____________________.

A. By moving control stick in the desired direction of turn

B. Through the use of rudder (with sufficient propwash or airflow)

C. Operation of the hydraulic nose wheel steering system (NWS)

D. Through the application of differential braking

A. By moving control stick in the desired direction of turn

The three methods for steering the aircraft during ground operations are differential braking, nose wheel braking, control stick placement in direction of turn.

A. True

B. False

B. False

Which method(s) are used to steer the aircraft on the ground?

A. Nose wheel steering only

B. Nose wheel steering and differential thrust

C. Nose wheel steering, differential braking, rudder

D. Rudder and differential braking only

C. Nose wheel steering, differential braking, rudder

The nose wheel steering is activated _______________________.

A. By pushing either rudder pedal

B. By pushing the NWS switch on the instrument panel

C. Automatically after landing

D. By pushing the nose wheel steering button on the control stick

D. By pushing the nose wheel steering button on the control stick

During ground operations involving high taxi speed, nose wheel steering should ________________ used, due to ___________________.

A. Not be; increased sensitivity

B. Be; better control

C. Not be; decreased responsiveness

D. Be; reduced wear on the brakes

A. Not be; increased sensitivity

Which statement is true regarding the parking brake?

A. It is activated by first pulling and turning the handle 90 degrees clockwise or counterclockwise

B. The parking brake will operate partially using the emergency system

C. The parking brake will not operate if the hydraulic system fails

D. The parking brake is applied by applying the toe brakes while simultaneously pulling and turning the parking brake handle 90 degrees clockwise

D. The parking brake is applied by applying the toe brakes while simultaneously pulling and turning the parking brake handle 90 degrees clockwise

The brake system is considered inoperative if the primary hydraulic system fails.

A. True

B. False

B. False

The fluid which provides pressure to the wheel brakes is supplied by ________________________________.

A. The master cylinders and the power package

B. The master cylinders and the brake reservoir

C. Cylinders at the tops of the brake pedals

D. The master cylinders and the brake units

B. The master cylinders and the brake reservoir

The UFCP is the primary means of system control functions including __________________________.

A. Communication and navigation radio selection and turning

B. Navigation waypoint entry

C. Execution of pre-planned waypoints and flight plans

D. All of the above

D. All of the above

Select the FALSE statement concerning the UFCP.

A. The UFCP provides data entry functionality and control of a wide variety of displays and subsystems

B. The UFCP upper panel provides communication and navigation radio frequency setting functionality

C. The hard keys provide access to various UFCP pages

D. The UFCP alphanumeric keyboard is the only method to change frequency settings

D. The UFCP alphanumeric keyboard is the only method to change frequency settings

The purpose of the up front control panel (UFCP) is to provide data entry functionality and control of a wide variety of displays and subsystems.

A. True

B. False

A. True

The UFCP persistent display is the ____________ presentation and displays after ______________ seconds of inactivity.

A. Advanced; 20

B. Default; 20

C. Basic; 10

D. Primary; 10

B. Default; 20

Invalid frequency data in the UFCP is indicated by what symbol?

A. Right-facing chevron

B. Asterisk

C. Left-facing filled triangle

D. Left-facing chevron

B. Asterisk

A filled circle (left justified) in a UFCP data display window indicates the window __________________.

A. Has a press and hold function

B. Is inactive for data entry

C. Is active for data entry

D. Has toggle capability for two or more options

A. Has a press and hold function

The UHF radio operates in one of three active modes, set normally through the UFCP. They include ________________.

A. Mode A, mode C, mode S

B. Transmit/receive and monitor Guard, Transmit/receive, Guard

C. Transmit, receive, monitor Guard

D. Preset, manual, automatic

B. Transmit/receive and monitor Guard, Transmit/receive, Guard

The data entry knob on the lower portion of the up front control panel ________________.

A. Increments numerical values (clockwise rotation)

B. Decrements numerical values (counter clockwise rotation)

C. Has a push-to-select function

D. All of the above

D. All of the above

From the up front control panel (UFCP) persistent display, the ___________________ can be viewed or changed.

A. UHF communication frequency

B. VHF communication frequency

C. Barometric altimeter

D. Both A and B

D. Both A and B

The following statements describe MFD/UFCP REPEAT functionality. Which statement is false?

A. When NORM is selected in both cockpits, the MFDs and UFCP pages communicate with respective integrated avionics computer (IACs)

B. When MFD/UFCP REPEAT is selected in the rear cockpit, the RPT FWD status advisory appears in the crew alerting system (CAS) display

C. When MFD/UFCP REPEAT is selected in the forward cockpit, the RPT FWD status advisory appears in the crew alerting system (CAS) display

D. With REPEAT is selected, the MFDs/UFCP in the cockpit where REPEAT is selected duplicate the displays of the other cockpit

C. When MFD/UFCP REPEAT is selected in the forward cockpit, the RPT FWD status advisory appears in the crew alerting system (CAS) display

When REPEAT mode is initiated from the rear cockpit, display control inputs from both cockpits communicate with IAC1.

A. True

B. False

A. True

When the MFD/UFCP REPEAT switch is set to NORM in both cockpits ____________________.

A. The UFCP/MFDs in the forward and rear cockpits communicate with IAC2 while IAC1 remains in standby

B. The UFCP/MFDs in the forward cockpit communicate with IAC1 and the UFCP/MFDs in the rear cockpit communicate with IAC2

C. The UFCP/MFDs in the forward and rear cockpits communicate with IAC1 while IAC2 remains in standby

D. The UFCP/MFDs in the forward cockpit communicate with IAC2 and the UFCP/MFDs in the rear cockpit communicate with IAC1

B. The UFCP/MFDs in the forward cockpit communicate with IAC1 and the UFCP/MFDs in the rear cockpit communicate with IAC2

What does a yellow UFCP 1 FAIL caution advisory appears on the crew alerting system (CAS) display mean?

A. The forward UFCP has lost power it's power source from the generator bus

B. The forward UFCP is not communicating with IAC1 or IAC2, or the unit has failed

C. The forward UFCP has automatically switched to the REPEAT mode due to a power source failure

D. The forward UFCP is not communicating with IAC2

B. The forward UFCP is not communicating with IAC1 or IAC2, or the unit has failed

What does a yellow UFCP 2 FAIL caution advisory appears on the crew alerting system (CAS) display mean?

A. The rear UFCP is not communicating with IAC1 or IAC2, or the unit has failed

B. The rear UFCP is not communicating with IAC1

C. The rear UFCP has automatically switched to the REPEAT mode due to a power source failure

D. The rear UFCP has lost power it's power source from the generator bus

A. The rear UFCP is not communicating with IAC1 or IAC2, or the unit has failed

If the up front control panel (UFCP) fails, shortcuts are provided on the NAV display to provide capabilities for entering a frequency and an altimeter setting.

A. True

B. False

A. True

The aircraft is equipped with which of the following radio navigation systems?

A. VHF omnidirectional range (VOR)

B. Instrument landing system (ILS)

C. Distance measuring equipment (DME)

D. All of the above

D. All of the above

The aircraft is NOT equipped with which of the following radio navigation systems?

A. Instrument landing system (ILS)

B. Distance measuring equipment (DME)

C. Tactical air navigation (TACAN)

D. VHF omnidirectional range (VOR)

C. Tactical air navigation (TACAN)

The aircraft radio navigation system is comprised of VHF omnidirectional range (VOR), instrument landing system (ILS) and distance measuring equipment (DME).

A. True

B. False

A. True

From the below list of statements, which one is FALSE with regards to the integrated avionics system?

A. IAC1 supports the forward cockpit and acts as a backup for the rear cockpit for redundancy

B. IAC2 supports the rear cockpit and acts as a backup for the forward cockpit for redundancy

C. Except for the heads up display (HUD) in the forward cockpit, the integrated avionics system display configuration is identical for both forward and rear cockpits

D. IAC1 is the primary computer for both cockpits while IAC2 remains in standby

D. IAC1 is the primary computer for both cockpits while IAC2 remains in standby

Which system is NOT part of the integrated avionics system?

A. Navigation display (NAV)

B. Primary flight display (PFD)

C. Backup flight instrument (BFI)

D. Radio navigation system

C. Backup flight instrument (BFI)

The dual IACs form the core of the integrated avionics system. They integrate with various components of the system, however they do not provide backup capability.

A. True

B. False

B. False

From left to right, the default display arrangement at power up is ____________________.

A. Primary flight display (PFD), navigation (NAV), engine indication and crew alerting system (EICAS)

B. Engine indication and crew alerting system (EICAS), primary flight display (PFD), navigation (NAV)

C. Navigation (NAV), engine indication and crew alerting system (EICAS), primary flight display (PFD)

D. Navigation (NAV), primary flight display (PFD), engine indication and crew alerting system (EICAS)

D. Navigation (NAV), primary flight display (PFD), engine indication and crew alerting system (EICAS)

In the basic student level configuration, one MFD must always display a ____________________ and one MFD must always display the __________________.

A. NAV; EICAS

B. NAV; EICAS

C. PFD; NAV

D. PFD; EICAS

D. PFD; EICAS

Failure of an IAC automatically switches the MFDs and controls to the other IAC. No pilot action is required.

A. True

B. False

A. True

The attitude, airspeed, vertical speed, glideslope and localizer, angle of attack, turn and slip, and wind indicator along with an altimeter, HSI, and accelerometer are displayed on the ___________________.

A. BFI

B. NAV

C. EICAS

D. PFD

D. PFD

The bottom half of the PFD consists of ___________________.

A. The attitude indicator, AOA, airspeed, altitude, vertical speed indicators

B. A compass rose or arc that includes a map, glideslope or lateral deviation indicators, and active FMS waypoint information

C. Aircraft and engine system information and CAS messages

D. The horizontal situation indicator and provides primary heading, navigation display, course selection, indication, NAV source, and localizer

D. The horizontal situation indicator and provides primary heading, navigation display, course selection, indication, NAV source, and localizer

If the center MFD (PFD) fails, the PFD reverts to right MFD and replaces the EICAS, NAV display remains as is.

A. True

B. False

B. False

The backup flight instrument (BFI) provides backup ______________________ indications in case of failure of the integrated avionics system.

A. TCAS

B. Primary flight instrument

C. Engine instrument

D. Navigation

B. Primary flight instrument

The backup flight instrument (BFI) provides backup primary flight instrument indications in case of failure of the integrated avionics system.

A. True

B. False

A. True

What instrument provides primary flight instrumentation in case the integrated avionics system fails?

A. Backup flight instrument (BFI)

B. Navigation MFD

C. Alternate attitude indicator

D. Tactical situation display

A. Backup flight instrument (BFI)

The backup flight instruments display airspeed, altitude, vertical velocity, heading, and ____________________________.

A. Attitude

B. Angle of attack

C. Basic engine data

D. Acceleration

A. Attitude

The backup flight instrument attitude indicator gyro inputs come from _____________________.

A. Its own internal three-axis gyro stabilization system

B. The integrated avionics system inertial reference unit (IRU)

C. Both its own reference system source and the integrated avionics system

D. The global positioning system (GPS)

A. Its own internal three-axis gyro stabilization system

The BFIs provide backup indications in the event of failure of the electronic flight instrument system or the aircraft electrical systems. The BFIs are normally powered by the __________________________.

A. Battery bus

B. Auxiliary battery

C. Generator bus

D. Main AC buses

A. Battery bus

With aircraft weight on the ground (weight on wheels) and the avionics switch OFF, application of ground or battery power will turn on only the _____________________ MFD with ____________________________ as the default display.

A. Right-hand, EICAS

B. Center, EICAS

C. Center, PFD

D. Right-hand, PFD

A. Right-hand, EICAS

The master warning and master caution switchlights are interconnected with the _______________________.

A. Engine/electrical switch panel

B. Trim control panel

C. Crew alerting system (CAS) messages

D. Environmental control panel

C. Crew alerting system (CAS) messages

When a flashing master warning (MASTER WARN) or master caution (MASTER CAUT) switchlight is reset, the associated message in the crew alerting system (CAS) on the engine indication and crew alerting system (EICAS) display will __________________ for as long as the malfunction or failure condition persists.

A. Begin flashing

B. Remain on steady

C. Also reset

D. Extinguish, the relight

B. Remain on steady

The EICAS is organized into what display groups?

A. Fuel, electrical, and environmental

B. Engine performance

C. Crew alerting system (CAS) messages

D. All of the above

D. All of the above

Which indication is NOT part of the engine performance section of the EICAS display?

A. Gas turbine speed (% N1)

B. Fuel flow

C. Interstage turbine temperature (C ITT)

D. % Torque

B. Fuel flow

Which crew alerting system (CAS) message color code represents hazardous conditions that require immediate pilot attention and may require immediate pilot action?

A. Yellow

B. Green

C. White

D. Red

D. Red

Distinguishable warning tones are routed through the headset and are triggered using the same logic as the individual alert message. The warning tone volume control is ___________________________.

A. Variable depending on nature of CAS message

B. Adjustable using the HDPH knob on the audio panel

C. Fixed and cannot be changes

D. Adjustable using the INPH knob on the audio panel

C. Fixed and cannot be changed

Warning tones generated by the audio management unit (AMU) are routed to the _________________________.

A. Main annunciator panel

B. VHF radio

C. Helmet audio connections

D. Cockpit speaker

C. Helmet audio connections

Which of the following are pilot warning tone outputs by the electric tone generator?

A. Landing gear position warning and overspeed warning

B. Master warn, master caution, fire, and AOA stall warning

C. CAS enroute mode and over-G warning

D. CAS landing mode alert and stick shaker warning

A. Landing gear position warning and overspeed warning

The AOA computer receives input from the ______________ on the leading edge of the left wing, the __________________ and the ___________________.

A. AOA indexer, flap gauge, and the landing gear weight on wheels switch

B. AOA vane, flap position microswitch, landing gear (when extended)

C. AOA vane, elevator position microswitch, landing gear lever (when extended)

D. Pitot tube, flap lever, outboard gear door switch (when extended)

B. AOA vane, flap position microswitch, landing gear (when extended)

The angle of attack (AOA) amber donut will continue to indicate the _______________________ as aircraft weight decreases.

A. Stall speed

B. Optimum no-wind airspeed in the landing pattern

C. Maximum endurance speed

D. No-wind best range glide speed

B. Optimum no-wind airspeed in the landing pattern

Angle of attack (AOA) information is provided on the AOA indexer when ____________________.

A. The flaps are set to landing setting

B. The landing gear is down and locked

C. The angle of attack is below 8.8 units on the AOA indicator

D. Airspeed is 5 to 10 knots above stall speed

B. The landing gear is down and locked

The accelerometer indicates the aircraft __________________ experienced during flight.

A. Roll rate

B. Angle of attack

C. Vertical velocity

D. G load

D. G load