[PHARMACOLOGY] MANOR SET 2

PROVERBS 16;3

B) ipratropium

1. Which of the following drugs most likely to be used in the treatment of bronchospasm that is associated with COPD?
   a. edrophnium
   b. ipratropium
   c. ambenonium
   d. Propantheline
   e. homatropine

C) xerostomia

2. All of the following adverse effects are manifestations of cholinergic agonists except:
   a. bradycardia
   b. bronchoconsitrciton
   c. xerostomia
   d. lacrimation
   e. myopic accomdation

C) epinephrine

3. Which of the following drugs is considered to be the agent of choice for anaphylactic reactions?
   a. clonidine
   b. isoproterenol
   c. epinephrine
   d. phenylephrine
   e. terbutaline

B) succinylcholine

4. Which of the following neuromuscular blocking agents can cause muscarinic responses such as bradycardia and increased glandular secretions?
   a. tubocurarine
   b. succinylcholine
   c. pancuronium
   d. decamethonium
   e. gallamine

A) atropine

5. Which of the following agents would not be appropriate in the treatment of glaucoma?
   a. atropine
   b. pilocarpine
   c. physostigmine
   d. timolol
   e. epinephrine

D) diarrhea

6. Adverse reaction to atropine include all if the following except:
   a. photophobia
   b. dry mouith
   c. sedation
   d. diarrhea
   e. tachycardia

B) halothane

7. Which of the following drugs is a volatile substance that is administered by inhalation?
   a. thiopental
   b. halothane
   c. alprazolam
   d. buspirone
   e. phenytoin

A) Fluphenazine

8.The structure of prochlorperazine is shown below. Which of the following medications, because of is chemical relationship to prochlorperazine, would most likely cause similar side effects?
a. Fluphenazine
b. thioridazine
c. alprazolam
d. buspirone
e. pentobarbital

D) rapid rate of redistribution from the brain due to its high liposolubility

9. The brief duration of action of an ultra-short-acting barbiturate is due to a:
   a. slow rate of metabolism in the liver
   b. low lipid solubility, resulting in a minimal concertation in the brain
   c. high degree of binding to plasma proteins
   d. rapid rate of redistribution from the brain due to its high liposolubility
   e. slow rate of excretion by the kidneys

B) The antimuscarinic activity of diphenhydramine contributes to the restoration of striatal dopaminergic-cholinergic neurotransmitter balance

10. Which of the following mechanisms of action is true and most likely contributes to the treatment of parkinsonism?
    a. The direct-acting dopaminergic agonist amantadine mimics the activity of striatal doipamine
    b. The antimuscarinic activity of diphenhydramine contributes to the restoration of striatal dopaminergic-cholinergic neurotransmitter balance
    A. striatal H1-receptors are blocked by the antihistaminic trihexyphenidyl
    c. The ergoline bromocriptine stimulates the release of striatal dopamine from intact terminals
    d. the ability of dopamine to cross the blod-brain barrier allows it to restore striatal dopaminergic-cholinergic neurotransmitter blaance

E) livedo reticularis

11. All of the following adverse effects are associated with the use of levodopa except:
    a. sialorrhea
    b. orthostatic hypotension
    c. delusions, confusion, and depression
    d. dyskinesia and dystonia
    e. livedo reticularis

E) meperidine

12. The activity of which of the following drugs is dependent on a p-phenyl-N-alkylpiperidine moiety?
    a. phenobarbital
    b. chlorpromazine
    c. diazepam
    d. imipramine
    e. meperidine

C) anti-inflammatories

13. Opioids are used as all of the following agents except:
    a. antitussives
    b. analgesics
    c. anti-inflammatories
    d. antidiarrheals
    e. preanesthetic emdication

A) trimethadione

14. Which of the following agents would not be an alternative to phenobarbital in the treatment of partial seizures?
    a. trimethadione
    b. gabapentin
    c. felbamate
    d. lamotrigine

C) I and II

15. Cholinesterase inhibitors can be used therapeutically
    i. as miotic agents int he treatment of glaucoma
    ii. to increase skeletal muscle tone int he treatment of myasthenia gravis
    iii. to decrease gastrointestinal and urinary bladder smooth muscle lone:
    a. I only
    b. III only
    c. I and II
    d. II and III
    e. I, II, III

D) II and III

16. Antimuscarinic agents are used in the treatment of Parkinson's disease and in the control of some neuroleptic-induced extrapyramidal disorders. These agents include:
    I. ipratropium
    II. Benztropine
    III. trihexylphenidyl
    a. I only
    b. III only
    c. I and II
    d. II and III
    e. I, II, III

D) II and III

17. Certain drugs are sometimes incorporated into local anesthetic solutions to prolong their activity and reduce their systemic toxicity. These drugs include:
    I. dobutamine
    II. phenylpherine
    III. Epinephrine
    a. I only
    b. III only
    c. I and II
    d. II and III
    e. I, II, III

E) I, II, III

18. Improper administration of local anesthetic can cause toxic plasma concentration that may result in:
    I. seizures and CNS depression
    II. respiratory and myocardial depression
    III. circulatory
    a. I only
    b. III only
    c. I and II
    d. II and III
    e. I, II, III

E) I, II, III

19. In addition to their anxiolytic properties, benzodiazepines are indicated for use:
    I. as preanesthetic medications
    II. as anticonvulsants
    III. during acute withdrawal from alcohol
    a. I only
    b. III only
    c. I and II
    d. II and III
    e. I, II, III

C) buspirone

20. An anxiolytic drug that does not posses either hypnotic or anticonvulsant properties:
    a. tranylcypromine
    b. imipramine
    c. buspirone
    d. fluoxetine
    e. phenelzine

B) imipramine

21. A prototype tricyclic antidepressant with antimuscarinic properties that make it useful in the management of enuresis
    a. tranylcypromine
    b. imipramine
    c. buspirone
    d. fluoxetine
    e. phenelzine

D) fluoxetine

22. An antidepressant that inhibits serotonin reuptake and may cause adverse effects such as impaired memory, akathisia, and menstrual irregularities:
    a. tranylcypromine
    b. imipramine
    c. buspirone
    d. fluoxetine
    e. phenelzine

D) fexofenadine

23. A 32-year-old forklift operator with a past history of cardiac arrhythmias is suffering from seasonal rhinitis. Which of the following choices the best recommendation for this patient?
    a. diphenhydramine
    b. meclizine
    c. astemizole
    d. fexofenadine
    e. famotidine

E) ranitidine

24. Mechanistically, which of the following drugs will decrease stomach acid secretion by blockade of H2-histaminic receptors?
    a. pyrilamine
    b. hydroxyzine
    c. cisapride
    d. omeprezole
    e. ranitidine

D) All of the above

25. Lansoprazole would be effective in the treatment of:
    a. gastroesophageal disease
    b. petic ulcer disease
    c. Zollinger-ellison syndrome
    d. All of the above
    E. None of the above

C) Cisapride

26. Which of the following agents would decrease the pain associated with gastroesophageal reflux disease without appreciably altering gastric pH?
    a. Cimitidine
    b. Omprezole
    c. Cisapride
    d. Ondasetron
    e. Sumatripan

A) A female patient with constipation-related IBS

27. Which of the following is an appropriate indication of the drug tegaserod?
    a. A female patient with constipation-related IBS
    b. A female patient with diarrhea-related IBS
    c. A male patient with Crohn's disease
    d. A male patient with constipation-related IBS
    e. A patient with Zollinger-Ellison syndrome

B) Misoprostol

28. Which of the following prostaglandin analogues is used specifically for the treatment of NSAID-induced gastrointestinal (GI) ulceration?
    A. Alprostadil
    B. Misoprostol
    C. Carboprost
    D. Dinoprostone?
    E. Epoprostenol

A) Zileuton

29. Which of the following compounds is most likely to lower circulating levels of leukotrienes?
    a. Zileuton
    b. Montelukast
    c. Carprofen
    d. Aspirin
    e. Allopurinol

e) acetylate cyclooxygenase

30. The action of aspirin that results in its greater efficacy as an antithrombotic (antiplatelet) drug is its ability to:
    a. inhibit lipoxygenase as well as cyclooxygenase
    b. selectively inhibit cycooxygenase
    c. inhibit leukocyte migration
    d. promote uric acid excretion
    e. acetylate cyclooxygenase

D) indomethacin

31. Which of the following drugs may be effective in the treatment of gouty arthritis by acting by two separate and distinct mechanisms
    a. allopurinol
    b. probenecid
    c. colchincines
    d. indomethacin
    e. sulfinpyrazone

D) all of the above

32. Acute or chronic colchicine toxicity may be identified by which of the following signs/symptom?
    a. alopecia
    b. blood dyscrasias
    c. severe GI upset
    d. all of the above
    e. none of the above

B) peripheral neuropathy

33. Patients taking chronic doses of nonselective NSAIDs should periodically be screened for which of the following toxicities?
    a. nephrotoxicity
    b. peripheral neuropathy
    c. cardiotoxicity
    d. all of the above
    e. none of the above

E) refocoxib

34. Which of the following medications would represent arthritis therapy that is least likely to cause gastric ulceration?
    a. aspirin
    b. acetaminophen
    c. prioxicam
    d. meclfenamate
    e. refocoxib

D) all of the above

35. In addition to their ability to decrease inflammatory prostaglandin synthesis, some NSAIDs may owe a part of their effect to their ability to;
    a. inhibit leukocyte migration
    b. inhibit leukotriene synthesis
    c. stabilize lysosomal membranes
    d. all of the above
    e. none of the above

C) they constrict coronary arteries and arterioles and decrease oxygen delivery tot he myocardium

36. Calcium channel blockers have all the following characteristics except:
    a. they block the slow inward current carried by calcium during phase 2 of the cardiac action potential
    b. they dilate peripheral arterioles and reduce total peripheral resistance
    c. they constrict coronary arteries and arterioles and decrease oxygen delivery tot he myocardium
    d. they are useful in treating stable angina pectoris and Prinzmetal's angina
    e. adverse effects include aggravation of congestive heart failure

D) an acid-base interaction

37. The termination of heparin activity by protamine sulfate is due to
    a. a chelating action
    b. the inhibition of gastrointesntinal absorption of heparin
    c. the displacement of heparin-plasma protein binding
    d. an acid-base interaction
    e. the prothrombin-like activity of protamine

B) digoxin

38. Which of the follolwing cardiovascular agents is classified chemically as a glycoside?
    a. nifedipiine
    b. digoxin
    c. flecainide
    d. cholestyramine
    e. warfarin

D) ventricular tachycardia

39. Cardiac glycosides may be useful in treating all of the following conditions except:
    a. atrial flutter
    b. paroxysmal atrial tachycardia
    c. congestive heart failure
    d. ventricular tachycardia
    e. atrial fibrillation

E) Vitamin K

40. Ingestion of which of the following vitamins should be avoided by a patient taking an oral anticoagulant?
    a. Vitamin A
    b. Vitamin B
    c. Vitamin D
    d. Vitamin E
    e. Vitamin K

C) Thiazides

41. The structure shown below is characteristic of which of the following agents?
    a. Osmotic diuretics
    b. Carbonic amydrase inhibitors
    c. Thiazides
    d. Loop diuretics
    e. potassium-sparing diuretics

E) chlorothiazide

42. Which of the following diuretics is most similar in chemical structure to the antihypertensive agent diazoxide?
    a. furosemide
    b. spironolacton
    c. mannnitol
    d. acetozalamide
    e. chlorothiazide

A) I only

43. In the oral treatment of iron-deficiency anemia, iron is preferably administered as:
    I. ferrous iron
    II. ferric salts
    III. elemental iron
    a. I only
    b. III only
    c. I and II
    d. II and III
    e. I, II, III

D) II and III

44. Parenterally administered antihypertensive agents used in treating hypertensive emergencies include the:
    I. centrally acting antiadrenergic clonidine
    II. arteriolar and venous vasodilator nitroprusside
    III. ganglionic-blocking agent trimethaphan
    a. I only
    b. III only
    c. I and II
    d. II and III
    e. I, II, III

E) I, II, III

45. Certain factors contribute to the longer duration of action of digitoxin when compared with that of digoxin. These include:
    I. greater protein binding
    II. reduced polarity
    III. greater tubular reabsorption
    a. I only
    b. III only
    c. I and II
    d. II and III
    e. I, II, III

C) I and II

46. Oral anticoagulants have the following properties:
    I. They interfere with vitamin K-dependent synthesis of active clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X
    II. They have adverse effects that include hemorrhage, urticaria, purpura, and alopecia
    III. They prolong the clotting time of blood both in vivo adn in vitro
    a. I only
    b. III only
    c. I and II
    d. II and III
    e. I, II, III

D) B-blockers

47. Which class of drugs most closely relates to bradycardia, hypotension, increased airway resistance, and congestive heart failure as its adverse effects?
    a. cardiac glycosides
    b. calcium channel blockers
    c. ACE inhibitors
    d. B-blockers
    e. nitrites and nitrates

A) cardiac glycosides

48. Which class of drugs most closely relates to visual disturbances (yellow or green vision), confusion, anorexia, vomiting. AV block, and ventricular tachycardia as its adverse effects?
    a. cardiac glycosides
    b. calcium channel blockers
    c. ACE inhibitors
    d. B-blockers
    e. Nitrile and nitrates

C) ACE inhibitors

49. Which class of drugs most closely relates to hypotension, acute renal failure….jaundice and agranulocytosis as its adverse effects?
    a. cardiac glycosides
    b. calcium channel blockers
    c. ACE inhibitors
    d. B-blockers
    e. Nitrites and nitrates

C) spironolactone

50. It interferes with distal tubular aldosterone-mediated sodium-potassium exchange, renders the urine alkaline, and may cause hyperkalemia, gynecomastia, and menstrual irregularities.
    a. furosemide
    b. hydrochlorothiazide
    c. spironolactone
    d. mannitol
    e. acetazolamide

D) mannitol

51. Freely filtered, this drug limits tubular reabsorption of water and is useful in reducing cerebral edema and intracranial pressure.
    a. furosemide
    b. hydrochlorthiazide
    c. spironolactone
    d. mannitol
    e. acetazolamide

A) furosemide

52. The principal site of action of this drug is on the thick ascending limb of Henle's loop; it is useful in treating pulmonary edema and ascites.
    a. furosemide
    b. hydrochlorothiazide
    c. spironolactone
    d. mannitol
    e. acetazolamide

A) an estrogen

53. The following structure is a hormone. It would be classified best as
    a. an estrogen
    b. a progestin
    c. an androgen
    d. agonadotropin
    e. an adrenocorticosteroid

B) human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)

54. All of the following substances are endogenous tropic hormones secreted by the pituitary gland except
    a. somatotropin
    b. human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
    c. follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
    d. thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
    e. adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)

C) Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)

55. Which of the following substances when present in urine is the most likely positive sign of pregnancy?
    a. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
    b. Corticotropin (ACTH)
    c. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
    d. Interential cell-stimulating hormone (ICSH)
    e. Protamine zinc insulin (PZI

C) liothyronine

56. All of the following hormonal drugs possess a steroidal nucleus except:
    a. ethinyl estradiol
    b. norethindrone
    c. liothyronine
    d. predinosolone
    e. fluoxymesterone

D) dexamethasone

57. Which of the following glucocorticoids produces the least sodium retention?
    a. cortisone
    b. hydrocortisone
    c. prednisolone
    d. dexamethasone
    e. fludrocortisone

A) Regular insulin

58. Which of the following insulins can be administered intravenously?
    a. Regular insulin
    b. Isophane insulin (NPH)
    c. Protamine zinc insulin (PZI)
    d. Semilente insulin
    e. Ultralente insulin

B) Liothyronine can be converted in the peripheral circulation to levothyroxine

59. In comparing levothyroxine and liothyronine, which of the following statements is not correct?
    a. Both levothyroxine and liothyronine are naturally occurring thyroid hormones.
    b. Liothyronine can be converted in the peripheral circulation to levothyroxine
    c. Liothyronine is more potent than levothyroxine
    d. The plasma concentration of liothyronine is less than that of levothyroxine
    e. Liothyronine has a short duration fo action than levothyroxine

E) sulfonylureas

60. Which of the following classes of compounds stimulates the release of insulin from pancreatic B-cells?
    a. progestins
    b. biguanides
    c. a-glucosidase inhibitors
    d. thiourylenes
    e. sulfonylureas

D) Pioglitazone: competitively blocks the binding of estrogens to their receptor

61. Which of the following compounds is incorrectly matched with its mechanism of action?
    a. Flutamide: competitively blocks binding of androgens to their receptor
    b. Finasteride: inhibits 5a-reducase
    c. Miglitol: inhibits a-glucosides
    d. Pioglitazone: competitively blocks the binding of estrogens to their receptor
    e. Anastrozole: inhibits aromatase

A) Raloxifene: advanced breast cancer

62. Which of the following compounds is incorrectly matched with one of its therapeutic uses?
    a. Raloxifene: advanced breast cancer
    b. Metformin: non-insulin-dependend diabetes mellitus (NIDDM)
    c. Finasteride: benign prostatic hyperplasia
    d. Propylthiouracil: hyperthyroidism
    e. Tamoxifen: estrogen-dependent breast cancer

C) I and II

63. Hormones that form lipophilic esters without prior structural modifications include:
    I. hydrocortisone
    II. testosterone
    III. progesterone
    a. I only
    b. III only
    c. I and II
    d. II and III
    e. I, II, III

B) III only

64. Insulin preparations that contain a modifying protein include:
    I. lente insulin
    II. regular insulin
    III. isophane insulin (NPH)
    a. I only
    b. III only
    c. I and II
    d. II and III
    e. I, II, III

B) Insulin

65. Secreted by pancreatic B cells to facilitate glucose and amino acid transport for normal cellular metabolic processes:
    a. Testosterone
    b. Insulin
    c. Corticotropin
    d. Estradiol
    e. Vasopressin

A) Testosterone

66. Initiates and control male sexual development and maintains the integrity of the male reproductive system
    a. Testosterone
    b. Insulin
    c. Corticotropin
    d. Estradiol
    e. Vasopressin

E) Vasopressin

67. Promotes the resorption of water at the renal distal convoluted tubule:
    a. Testosterone
    b. Insulin
    c. Corticotropin
    d. Estradiol
    e. Vasopressin

C) Adrenocorticosteroids

68. Peptic ulceration and gastrointestinal hemorrhage; hyperglycemia, hypertension, and edema; "buffalo hump" and "moon face; psychological disturbances; and increased susceptibility to infection are the adverse effects of:
    a. Antithyroid agents
    b. Sulfonylurea oral hypoglycemics
    c. Adrenocorticosteroids
    d. Progestins
    e. Androgen

B) Sulfonylurea oral hypoglycemic

69. Agranulocytosis and other blood dyscrasias, cholestatic jaundice, nausea and vomiting, hypoglycemia, and photosensitivity are the adverse effects of:
    a. Antithyroid agents
    b. Sulfonylurea oral hypoglycemic
    c. Adrenocorticosteroids
    d. Progestins
    e. Androgens

E) Androgens

70. Hepatotoxicity and jaundice, urinary retention and azoospermia, prostatic hypertrophy and priapism, and paradoxical gynecomastia are the adverse effects of:
    a. Antithyroid agents
    b. Sulfonylurea oral hypoglycemic
    c. Adrenocorticosteroids
    d. Progestins
    e. Androgens

A) gout

71. Colchicine is used mainly to treat:
    a. gout
    b. arthritis
    c. diabetes
    d. carcinogens
    e. high blood pressure

A) when seizures occur frequently

72. Dosage of anticonvulsants is adjusted:
    a. when seizures occur frequently
    b. every 2 weeks
    c. every 2 years
    d. occasionally when side effects are seen
    e. seasonly

D) Vagal arrest of the heart

73. Which of the following symptoms is not present in digitalis intoxication?
    a. AV block
    b. Ventricular tachycardia
    c. Vomiting
    d. Vagal arrest of the heart
    e. Visual disturbances

A) the acetyl derivative

74. Sulfonamides are excreted free and combined as:
    a. the acetyl derivative
    b. the amino derivative
    c. the sulfate derivative
    d. the glycine conjugate
    e. none of the above

B) 8 to 10

75. Meperidine produces analgesia equal to the of morphine in a dose how many mines that of morphine?
    a. 1/2
    b. 8 to 10
    c. 1
    d. 100
    e. 1/100

A) too little dopamine in the brain

76. Parkinsonism is probably due to:
    a. too little dopamine in the brain
    b. too little levodopa in the brain
    c. too little acetylcholine in the brain
    d. too much levodopa in the brain
    e. too much dopamine in the brain

C) respiratory depression

77. The greatest threat from morphine poisoning is
    a. renal shutdown
    b. paralysis of the spinal cord
    c. respiratory depression
    d. cardiovascular collapse
    e. none of the above

C) nalorphine

78. A specific parotic antagonist is:
    a. menoridine
    b. polybrene
    c. nalorphine
    d. universal antidote
    e. meprobamate

A) Allopurinol

79. Which of the following is used to curtail chronic uric-acid stone formation?
    a. Allopurinol
    b. Trimethoprim
    c. Methenamine
    d. Ethacrynic acid
    e. Furosemide

B) Clofibrate

80. Which of the following is used to lower blood lipid levels?
    a. Trimethadione
    b. Clofibrate
    c. Flucytosine
    d. Coumarin
    e. Propranolol

D) beriberi

81. Therapeutically, vitamin B1, has been employed most successfully in the treatment of
    a. microcytic anemia
    b. pellagra
    c. scurvy
    d. beriberi
    e. macrocytic anemia

C) ulcers

82. Nizatidine is used to treat
    a. hypertension
    b. muscular injuries
    c. ulcers
    d. edema
    e. CHF

D) all of the above

83. Magnesium iron is necessary in
    a. stimulating enzyme systems
    b. muscular contraction
    c. nerve conduction
    d. all of the above
    e. none of the above

D) ergot alkaloids

84. A class of plant alkaloids that is widely used to treat migraine is
    a. vinca alkaloids
    b. digitalis glycosides
    c. stramonium' alkaloids
    d. ergot alkaloids
    e. belladonna alkaloids

B) Sunscreen

85. Titanium dioxide is used primarily in which of the following preparations?
    a. Cough suppressant
    b. Sunscreen
    c. Topical anesthetic
    d. Topical antispetic
    e. Burn treatment

B) diuretics

86. A group of drugs used widely to treat mild hypertension is
    a. sympathetic blockers
    b. diuretics
    c. ganglionic blockers
    d. MAO inhibitors
    e. None of the above

C) prevention of transplant rejection

87. Cyclosporine is used for
    a. allergies
    b. angina
    c. prevention of transplant rejection
    d. steroid deficiency
    e. treating lead poisoning

A) gastric hyperaciditiy

88. Lanzoprazole is used primarily to treat
    a. gastric hyperaciditiy
    b. hypertension
    c. cardiac insufficiency
    d. gout
    e. migraine headache

C) psychotropic

89. Risperdone is a (an)
    a. diuretic
    b. cardiotonic
    c. psychotropic
    d. anti-inflammatory
    e. anthelmintic

B) diabetes

90. Glipizide is used primarily to treat
    a. ulcers
    b. diabetes
    c. colitis
    d. infections
    e. cardiac insufficiency

C) gum

91. Nicorette is available as
    a. tablets
    b. capsules
    c. gum
    d. NOTA
    e. AOTA

E) increase appetite

92. Triamcinolone differs from most glucocorticoids because it does not
    a. cause depression
    b. cause water retention
    c. affect blood sugar
    d. increase susceptibility to infection
    e. increase appetite

C) allopurinol

93. Which of the following drugs inhibits the formation of uric acid?
    a. aspirin
    b. colchicines
    c. allopurinol
    d. Na salicylate
    e. NOTA

D) chloroform

94. All of the following are used in general anesthesia except
    a. halothane
    b. isoflurane
    c. ethylene
    d. chloroform
    e. thiopental

A) Enteric-coated

95. Erye capsules contain which erythromycin base?
    a. Enteric-coated
    b. Microenospsulated
    c. Sugar-coated
    d. micronized
    e. crystalline

E) it is quite effective against penicillinase-producing organisms

96. Which of the following is not true of ampicillin?
    a. It is acid resistant?
    b. It is used to treat genitourinarny infections
    c. it is a second-generation penicillin
    d. it may cause allergic reactions
    e. it is quite effective against penicillinase-producing organisms

A) is more acid stable

97. An advantage of amoxicillin over ampicillin is that it
    a. is more acid stable
    b. is not destroyed by penicillinase
    c. has a broader spectrum
    d. does not cause allergies
    e. has a longer shelf-life

E) NOTA

98. Nefazodone is used widely to treat
    a. hypertension
    b. coronary occlusions
    c. rheumatoid arthritis
    d. diabetes
    e. NOTA

A) unknown

99. Buspirone is an antianxiety agent whose primary mechanism of action is
    a. unknown
    b. muscle relaxation
    c. sedation
    d. blocking neuroreceptors
    e. stimulating neuroreceptors

B) marked confusion

100. More than other hypnotics, flurazepam tends to produce
     a. marked ataxia
     b. marked confusion
     c. marked allergies
     d. marked hypertension
     e. NOTA