Kinesiology Summative

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55 Terms

1
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Which two filaments attach in order to perform the “power stroke”?

a)Actin and epimysium

b)Myosin and troponin

c)Troponin and tropomyosin

d)Actin and myosin

Actin and myosin

2
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Which of the following is not part of the hamstring

a)biceps femoris

b)semiteninosus

c)rectus femoris

d)Semimembranosus

Rectus femoris

3
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The muscles that move the lower leg into knee extension are the:

a) Rectus femoris, vastus lateralis, vastus medialis, vastus intermedius

b) Gluteus maximus, gluteus medius, gluteus minimus, soleus

c) Adductor longus, biceps femoris, gastrocnemius

d)Biceps femoris, semimembranosus, semitendinosus

Rectus femoris, vastus lateralis, vastus medialis, vastus intermedius

4
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A muscle whose contraction is chiefly responsible for producing a movement is called:

a) A synergist

b) An antagonist

c) A fixator

d An agonist

An agonist

5
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Isokinetic exercise:

a) Controlled shortening and lengthening of the muscle

b) Is not available to the public

c) The úse of machines to control the speed of contraction

d) All of the above

All of the above

6
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Which muscle is NOT part of the rotator cuff?:

a) Supraspinatus

b) Infraspinatus

c) Trapezius

d) Teres minor

Trapezius

7
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Transient hypertrophy:

a) Is long term, called "the pump", results in the loss of muscle mass

b) Is short term, associated with an increase in fluid accumulation, called "the pump"

c) Is long term, called "the pump", occurs shortly after a workout

d) Is short term, can follow an injury, results in a loss of muscle mass

Is short term, associated with an increase in fluid accumulation, called "the pump"

8
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When the nerve impulse is transmitted (via Ach) to the muscle fiberis released.

a) ATP

b) ADP+P

c) Sarcoplasm

d) Calcium

Calcium

9
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If your gastrocnemius is the agonist for plantar flexion, which muscle acts as theantagonist?

a) Soleus

b) Fibularis longus

c) Tibialis anterior

d) The gastrocnemius is not the agonist for plantar flexion

Tibialis anterior

10
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In order for the binding sites on actin to be exposed,which structure needs to swivel?

a) Tropomyosin

b) Myosin heads

c) Troponin

d) ATP

Tropomyosin

11
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The sternocleidomastoid gets its name from:

a) Its shape

b) The points of attachment

c) The number of divisions/heads

d) The action it performs

the points of attachment

12
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The conductivity of a muscle fiber refers to its ability to:

a) Respond to a stimulus

b) Extend in length

c) Stretch and return to its resting position

d) Transmit nerve impulses

Transmit nerve impulses

13
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The motor neuron, its axon, and the muscle fibers it stimulates is referred to as the:

a) Sarcolemma

b) Neuromuscular junction

c) Terminal branches

d) None of the above

None of the above

14
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The three types of muscle tissue found in the body are:

a) Irritable, conductive, elastic

b) Smooth, cardiac, skeletal

c) Striated, nonstriated, smooth

d) Voluntary, involuntary, cardiac

Smooth, cardiac, skeletal

15
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The fiber:is the innermost layer of tissue that surrounds the muscle

a) Perimysium

b) Epimysium

c) Endomysium

d) Sarcomere

Endomysium

16
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This type of muscle has the slowest speed of contraction and is involuntary:

a) Skeletal

b) Cardiac

c) Smooth

d) Fascial

Smooth

17
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The acts as both the agonist and antagonist in shoulder elevation:

a) Trapezius

b) Latissimus dorsi

c) Deltoid

d) Biceps brachii

Trapezius

18
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Which of the following is an example of an antagonistic pair?

a) Gluteus medius and hamstrings

b) Biceps and triceps

c) Gastrocnemius and soleus

d) Rectus abdominis and external obliques

Biceps and triceps

19
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An isotonic exercise occurs when the muscle:

a) Shortens and lengthens

b) Lengthens

c) Stays the same length

d) Gets bigger

Shorten and lengthens

20
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Which of the following is a result of chronic hypertrophy?

a) Increased capillary density

b) Increased storage capacity for glucose, glycogen, ATP and CP

c) Increased size of muscle fibres

d) All of the above

All of the above

21
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Which metabolic pathway leads to the complete breakdown of glucose?

a) ATP-PC

b) glycolysis

c) cellular respiration

d)they all lead to the complete breakdown of glucose

cellular respiration

22
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The aerobic pathway produces lactic acid because:

a) it only produces enough energy for 10-15 seconds

b) it relies solely on the phosphocreatinethat is already stored in muscles

c) can easily convert ADP back to ATP

d) the aerobic pathway does not produce lactic acid

the aerobic pathway does not produce lactic acid

23
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When are proteins broken down to be used as energy?

a) when activity lasts longer than 20-25 min.

b) in chronic situations such as starvation

c) during the Krebs cycle

d) during the electron transport chain

in chronic situations such as starvation

24
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Krebs cycle produces 2 molecules of ATP that are sent to:

a) the electron transport chain

b) the endoplasmic reticulum

c) the heart

d) the blood

the electron transport chain

25
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The by-products of the electron transport chain are:

a) carbon dioxide and ATP

b) water and lactic acid

c) carbon dioxide and water

d) carbon dioxide, water, and lactic acid

carbon dioxide and water

26
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The main objective of exercise is to:

a) raise the lactic acid threshold

b) lower the lactic acid threshold

c) produce less lactic acid

d) convert lactic acid to pyruvate

raise the lactic acid threshold

27
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We know that the Cori cycle occurs during anaerobic lactic exercise because:

a) lactic acid is present

b) body uses straight lactic acid for'energy

c) that's what the lesson said

d) all of the above

lactic acid is present

28
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Fatty acids are found in:

a) muscle cells and organs

b) organs and adipose tissue

c) muscle cells and adipose tissue

d) organs and bones

organs and adipose tissue

29
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Which of the following is NOT readily available to be used as an energy source?

a) protein

b) fat

c) ATP

d) carbohydrates

protein

30
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Fibres that are dark in colour and able to maintain a lower level of tension for along duration are known as:

a) fast-twitch muscle fibres

b slow-twitch muscle fibres

c) intermediate muscle fibres

d) skeletal muscle fibres

slow-twitch muscle fibres

31
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The diencephalon houses the:

a) thalamus and hypothalamus

b) thalamus and frontal lobe

c) hypothalamus and brainstem

d) hypothalamus and reticular activating system

thalamus and hypothalamus

32
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Which of the following is NOT a part of the brain?

a) cerebrum

b) reticular activating system

c) golgi tendon organs

d) cerebellum

golgi tendon organs

33
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Phasic muscles:

a) assist the body with maintaining posture, high % of type l fibres

b) assist the body with maintaining posture, low % of type I fibres

c) capable of powerful movements, high % type IIA and IIB fibres

d) capable of powerful movements, low % type IIA and IIB fibres

capable of powerful movements, high % type IIA and IIB fibres

34
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Which two structures work together to gather, store and respond to information?

a) brain and heart

b) spinal cord and PNS

c) brain and spinal cord

d) cerebellum and diencephalon

brain and spinal cord

35
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The parasympathetic system:

a) returns the body to a normal state

b) gives sensations of touch, pain, heat,etc.

c) is a subsystem of the somatic nervous system

d) causes localized bodily adjustments to occur

returns the body to a normal state

36
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The system that is responsible for our awareness of the external environment andcontains both afferent and efferent nerve fibres is the:

a) somatic nervous system

b) autonomic nervous system

c) parasympathetic system

d) sympathetic system

somatic nervous system

37
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Digestion is an example of:

a) an interneuron

b) a receptor

c) a somatic reflex

d) an autonomic reflex

a somatic reflex

38
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Proprioceptors are found in:

a) bones, tendons, muscles

b) tendons, muscles, joints

c) muscles,tendons,bones

d) joints, bones, nerves

tendons, muscles, joints

39
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“During a reflex, the opposing muscles groups are simultaneously stimulated" is the definition of:

a) polysynaptic reflexes

b) reciprocal inhibition

c) the withdrawal reflex

d) the reflex arc

reciprocal inhibition

40
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Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a concussion:

a) results from a blow to the head

b) may involve injury to nerve fibres

c) can cause a change in the brain's-blood supply

d) they are all characteristics of a concussion

they are all characteristics of a concussion

41
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Which of the following is considered to be a short bone:
a) sternum ​
b) tarsals ​
c) fibula ​
d) pelvis

tarsals

42
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The humerus is __ to the ulna:
a) proximal
b) distal
c) anterior
d) posterior

proximal

43
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The skeleton performs all the following functions except:
a) supporting the body ​
b) working in conjunction with the muscles to cause movement ​
c) acting as a reservoir that the body can call upon to regulate the level of water ​
d) protecting vital organs

acting as a reservoir that the body can call upon to regulate the level of water ​

44
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The axial skeleton:
a) comprises the vertebral column, much of the skull, and the rib cage ​
b) consists of 206 bones including the movable and supporting structures ​
c) is made up of 80 bones ​
d) a & c
e) all of the above

a & c

45
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The end of a long bone is a region called the:
a) medullary cavity
b) diaphysis
c) epiphysis
d) periosteum

epiphysis

46
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The ischial tuberosity is found on the:
a) scapula
b) humerus
c) pelvis
d) radius

pelvis

47
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The term lateral means:

a) away from the midline ​
b) close to the surface of the body ​
c) towards the midline of the body ​
d) farther away from the point of attachment

away from the midline ​

48
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The outer connective tissue that covers the entire length of the bone is called:
a) compact bone
b) articulating cartilage
c) periosteum
d) trabeculae

periosteum

49
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Which actions do not occur in circumduction?

a) flexion

b) internal rotation

c) extension

d) they all occur in circumduction

e) none of them occur in circumduction

internal rotation

50
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The following bones are distal to the femur except:

a) tibia

b) calcaneus

c) fibula

d) they are all distal to the femur

e) none of them are distal to the femur

they are all distal to the femur

51
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On which bone will you find an epicondyle?
a) humerus ​
b) talus
c) pelvis

d) thoracic vertebrae

humerus

52
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The definition of a foramen is:
a) a simple depression at the end of a bone ​
b) a hole within a bone through which nerves or blood vessels pass ​
c) a tubelike passageway within a bone ​
d) a cavity within a bone

a hole within a bone through which nerves or blood vessels pass

53
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Movement towards the median plane is known as:
a) retraction ​
b) reposition ​
c) abduction ​
d) adduction

adduction

54
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Each pelvic bone is composed of which of the following bones? ​
a) ischium, ilium, sacrum
b) ilium, pubis ​
c) ischium, ilium, pubis ​
d) sacrum, pubis, ilium

ischium, ilium, pubis ​

55
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The olecranon process is found on the:
a) ulna ​
b) radius
c) humerus ​
d) scapula

ulna