Jeopardy Review: National Patient Safety Goals (NPSGs), Skin & Tissue Integrity, and Nurse Safety Concepts

Question-and-answer flashcards covering key safety topics from the lecture: NPSGs, alarm fatigue, universal protocol, critical results, sentinel events, near misses, occurrence reports, labeling and medications safety, wound care, Braden Scale, skin integrity, infection prevention, communication, staffing, scope of practice, restraints, and a final scenario.

What are the two most common client identifiers required for safe care?

Name and Date of Birth.

Why should critical lab results never be left on voicemail?

To ensure direct communication and timely action; voicemails are not HIPAA-compliant.

What is alarm fatigue, and why is it a safety risk?

Desensitization to frequent alarms, leading to delayed or missed responses to true emergencies.

How do you ensure universal protocol is followed for surgery on the right leg?

Use two identifiers, mark the surgical site, and perform a time-out before the procedure.

A client has a sodium level of 120 mEq/L (critical low). What should the nurse do first?

Report the critical result immediately to the provider.

Define a sentinel event and give one example.

An unexpected adverse event causing severe harm or death; e.g., wrong-site surgery.

What is the difference between a 'near miss' and a 'client safety event'?

Near miss = harm was avoided; client safety event = occurred, with or without harm.

Why are occurrence reports used in health care?

To track incidents and improve systems, not to punish staff.

A nurse discovers an unlabeled syringe in the OR. What is the correct action?

Discard immediately; unlabeled medications must never be used.

Which events require an occurrence report?

Visitor fall; unexpected drug reaction; incorrect medication administration; staff blood exposure.

What are the three layers of the skin?

Epidermis, dermis, and subcutaneous tissue.

Define blanchable vs. non-blanchable erythema.

Blanchable erythema turns white with pressure; non-blanchable erythema stays red (early sign of pressure injury).

What are the six categories of the Braden Scale?

Sensory Perception, Moisture, Activity, Mobility, Nutrition, Friction & Shear.

What does the Braden Scale scoring indicate?

15-16 = mild risk, 12-14 = moderate risk, <11 = severe risk.

Why is tightly braided hair that is immobile a risk for pressure injury, and what should the nurse suggest?

Risk for occipital pressure injury; suggest removing braids to reduce pressure.

Differentiate Stage 2 vs Stage 3 pressure injuries.

Stage 2: partial-thickness with pink/red viable tissue; Stage 3: full-thickness with adipose tissue and possible tunneling.

Name two factors that slow wound healing.

Malnutrition and infection (also diabetes, hypoxia, tissue necrosis, certain drugs).

What is surgical debridement, and why is it done?

Removal of dead tissue/biofilm with scalpel/scissors; decreases bacteria and stimulates healing.

Why is a moist—not wet—wound bed essential?

Promotes healing and prevents maceration of surrounding tissue.

A wound has purulent drainage. What should the nurse do first?

Report to the provider (indicates infection).

Match drainage type to description: serous, sanguineous, serosanguineous, purulent.

Serous = clear; sanguineous = bloody; serosanguineous = clear with blood; purulent = thick/yellow/green (infection).

What is the single most effective intervention for preventing hospital-acquired infections (HAIs)?

Hand hygiene.

Name four major risk factors for pressure injuries.

Immobility, malnutrition, reduced perfusion, sensory loss.

What’s the purpose of hourly rounding at the bedside?

Proactive safety—reduces falls, addresses toileting/pain, improves satisfaction.

You admit a malnourished, bedfast client with poor pedal pulses. What risk must you document immediately?

High risk for pressure injuries due to immobility, malnutrition, and poor perfusion.

A patient on anticoagulants falls. What two major safety risks must you assess first?

Risk of internal bleeding and risk of head injury.

What is the nurse's primary responsibility when identifying client safety risks?

Early recognition and immediate intervention to prevent harm.

What communication tool standardizes nurse-to-provider handoffs and helps prevent errors?

ISBARR (Identity, Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation, Read-back).

Why is it important to advocate for safe staffing ratios?

Adequate staffing directly impacts client safety, outcomes, and nurse burnout prevention.

A new nurse is unsure whether a task is within their scope of practice. What should they do first?

Check the state Nurse Practice Act and facility policy before proceeding.

A family insists restraints be used 'to keep them safe.' What is the nurse's best response?

Educate on risks of restraints, explore alternatives (hourly rounding, bed alarms), and follow legal/ethical guidelines.

In a patient with a hip fracture on bedrest, what actions should you take when bed alarm is turned off and moisture-related skin damage is present?

Reinstate the bed alarm, implement fall prevention measures, skin protection strategies, and notify the provider about poor nutrition status.