Introduction to Critical Care Medicine – Key Concepts

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These flashcards cover the pharmacist’s role, ICU scoring systems, stress-ulcer and glycemic management, traumatic brain injury interventions, pharmacokinetic alterations, and ventilator-associated pneumonia prevention, reflecting the breadth of the lecture material.

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40 Terms

1
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What are the primary responsibilities of a critical care pharmacist?

Ensure safe and effective medication use through patient review, participation in rounds, order verification, protocol development, consultation, and response to emergencies.

2
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List three patient outcomes shown to improve with critical care pharmacist involvement.

Reduced medication errors, shorter time to antibiotic delivery, and fewer ventilator-associated pneumonias (VAP).

3
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Name the bedside checklist represented by the acronym FASTHUG.

Feeding, Analgesia, Sedation, Thromboembolic prophylaxis, Hypo/Hyper-active delirium, Ulcer prophylaxis, Glucose control.

4
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What does the MAIDENS extension of FASTHUG add?

Medication reconciliation, Anti-infectives, Indication, Dose, Electrolytes/Labs, No duplication/Interactions/ADR, Stop dates.

5
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Give four different types of Intensive Care Units (ICUs).

Medical, Surgical, Trauma, Neuro (others include Burn, Cardio, Cardiothoracic, Pediatric, Neonatal).

6
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Why are acuity scoring systems used in critical care?

To predict outcomes and mortality, compare quality of care, and stratify patients for clinical trials.

7
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When should APACHE II or SAPS II be applied?

Within the first 24 hours of ICU admission to estimate disease severity and mortality risk in adult general ICU patients.

8
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Which scoring tool assesses progressive organ failure over time rather than an admission snapshot?

The Sequential Organ Failure Assessment (SOFA) score.

9
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What Glasgow Coma Score (GCS) range indicates severe brain injury?

A GCS of 8 or less.

10
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List two disease-specific scoring systems mentioned in the lecture.

CHA2DS2-VASc and RIFLE criteria (others include MELD, NIH Stroke Scale, qSOFA, etc.).

11
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According to 2024 SCCM guidelines, name one absolute risk factor that warrants stress-ulcer prophylaxis (SUP).

Coagulopathy defined as platelets < 50,000 / µL or INR > 1.5.

12
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Which two drug classes are routinely used for stress-ulcer prophylaxis?

H2 receptor antagonists (H2RAs) and proton-pump inhibitors (PPIs).

13
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State one potential harm associated with acid-suppressive therapy in the ICU.

Increased risk of Clostridioides difficile infection or nosocomial pneumonia.

14
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What advantage do H2RAs have over PPIs for SUP?

Longer safety record with intravenous formulations and lower cost; less association with C. difficile than PPIs.

15
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Give one disadvantage of cimetidine compared with other H2RAs.

More CYP-450 drug interactions and higher rate of CNS side-effects.

16
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Which 2018 New England Journal study showed a 1.7 % absolute risk reduction in clinically important GI bleeding with pantoprazole?

Krag et al., "Pantoprazole in Patients at Risk for Gastrointestinal Bleeding in the ICU."

17
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What serum glucose level triggers initiation of glycemic management protocols per 2024 SCCM guidelines?

Persistent blood glucose ≥ 180 mg/dL (10 mmol/L).

18
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What is the recommended target glucose range for most critically ill adults?

140–200 mg/dL; avoid titrating below 140 mg/dL to minimize hypoglycemia risk.

19
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Why is IV insulin preferred over subcutaneous insulin in the acute ICU setting?

It is rapidly titratable, potent, and has no absorption variability in critically ill patients.

20
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Describe the Yale Insulin Infusion Protocol’s initial infusion rate calculation.

Divide the initial BG by 100; the quotient (rounded to nearest 0.5 U) is given as both IV bolus and starting infusion rate in units/hour.

21
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When transitioning from IV to subcutaneous insulin, how is the total daily dose (TDD) estimated?

Average IV insulin rate (units/hr) over the past 6 h × 24, then × 0.75.

22
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What percentage of the calculated TDD should be given as basal insulin during transition?

50 % as basal, 50 % divided as nutritional bolus doses.

23
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Define Level 2 hypoglycemia in the ICU.

Blood glucose < 54 mg/dL.

24
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List three common contributors to ICU hyperglycemia besides diabetes.

Stress response, vasopressors, and corticosteroid therapy (others: TPN, enteral feeds, critical illness).

25
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State the systolic blood pressure goals for adult TBI patients aged 18–49 according to Brain Trauma Foundation.

Maintain SBP > 110 mm Hg.

26
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Name two clinical or radiographic signs that warrant hyperosmolar therapy for intracranial pressure (ICP).

ICP > 22 mm Hg on monitor or evidence of midline shift / impending herniation on CT.

27
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How does mannitol lower ICP?

Creates an osmotic gradient pulling water from brain tissue to the intravascular space and reduces blood viscosity, causing cerebral vasoconstriction.

28
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Give the typical bolus dose range of mannitol in traumatic brain injury.

0.5–1.5 g/kg of 20 % mannitol IV over 20–30 min.

29
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What is the recommended monitoring parameter to avoid mannitol-induced renal toxicity?

Keep serum osmolar gap < 20 mOsm/L and serum osmolality < 320 mOsm/L.

30
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List one situation in which hypertonic saline (HTS) is preferred over mannitol.

Hypotensive or hypovolemic TBI patient because HTS does not cause diuresis and hypotension.

31
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What serum sodium target is used when infusing 3 % hypertonic saline for ICP control?

Maintain serum Na⁺ 145–155 mEq/L.

32
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Why must 23.4 % sodium chloride be given via a central line?

High osmolarity can cause severe tissue injury if extravasation occurs.

33
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For seizure prophylaxis after moderate-severe TBI, which medication is preferred and for how long?

Levetiracetam for 7 days, longer if EEG abnormalities or seizures occur.

34
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State two major pharmacokinetic changes in critically ill patients that increase drug volume of distribution.

Capillary leak/edema (third spacing) and decreased plasma protein (albumin) binding.

35
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Give one bedside implication of altered distribution for hydrophilic antibiotics.

Higher loading doses or therapeutic drug monitoring may be required to achieve target concentrations.

36
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Define Augmented Renal Clearance (ARC).

Creatinine clearance > 130 mL/min often seen in young trauma or burn patients, leading to faster drug elimination.

37
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How should drug dosing references be used for ICU patients?

Prioritize primary literature and institution-specific protocols over standard package inserts due to altered PK/PD.

38
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Provide three key elements in VAP surveillance that suggest infection.

Rising ventilator settings (higher PEEP/FiO₂), new leukocytosis or leukopenia, and purulent secretions with positive culture after ≥4 days of mechanical ventilation.

39
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Name two evidence-based strategies to prevent VAP in adults.

Daily sedation interruption with spontaneous breathing trials and elevating the head of bed 30–45 degrees.

40
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Which common ICU intervention is NOT recommended solely for VAP prevention?

Routine stress-ulcer prophylaxis in all patients (may increase VAP risk).