ATC

Air mail

What was the initial driving force for the development of commercial aviation?

The postmaster general to contract with private corporations to carry airmail

The Airmail Act of 1925 authorized

The Morrow Report

The Air Commerce Act of 1926 was the direct result of

The federal requirement for pilots to be licensed

One of the major provisions of the of the creation of the Bureau of Air Commerce in 1934 was

3

The Civil Aeronautics Act of 1938 divided the functions of the Civil Aeronautics Authority into __ groups

The airlines to determine their own fares and roue structure

The Airline Deregulation Act of 1978 allowed

A series of mid-air collisions

The driving force behind the Federal Aviation Act of 1958 was

Aviate, Navigate, Communicate

In order, the three priorities of flight are:

St.Louis

The first air traffic controller was Archie W. League. He first worked at which of the following airports?

Several major airlines

The first Air Traffic Control Units were developed by:

Airport surveillance radar should be installed at busy airports

A lightweight transponder should be developed that would provide both identification and altitude information

Develop a common navigation system around VORs and DME

Instrument Landing Systems and Precision Approach Radar should be installed to improve poor weather landing capabilities

*All of the above

Which of the following are recommendations of the Special Committee 31 report?

Return to the starting point on airport

While taxiing for takeoff, you notice that the tower is flashing a white light at you.  This means:

Alert Area

The designation given to certain airspace where high volumes of pilot training or an unusual type of aerial activity exists is designated as a

Actively separate both VFR and IFR traffic.

Positive controlled airspace requires ATC facilities to

Only around the largest and busiest airports

Class B airspace is located

V

Low altitude VOR airways, are designated by preceding their numbers by a specific letter.  That letter is

Class A airspace

VFR flight is not permitted in

Class G

The FAA, in accordance with the International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO), has reclassified all airspace in the United States to comply with international designations.  The class of airspace which is designated as uncontrolled airspace is:

Requires the pilot to provide his/her own separation from other aircraft.

VFR flight in uncontrolled airspace

3 mile visibility and clear of clouds

What are the inflight weather requirements for VFR flight in class B airspace.

1 mile, clear of clouds

What are the visibility and cloud clearance requirements for VFR flight in class G airspace below 1200 feet AGL during daylight operations?

VFR aircraft must have an ATC clearance to enter

What is the entry requirement for VFR aircraft into Class B airspace?

VFR traffic are permitted to enter the MOA at their own risk

ATC reroutes IFR traffic around it

When a MOA is active:

J

High altitude VOR airways, are designated by preceding their numbers by a specific letter.  That letter is

c) Does not require a specific clearance, but the pilot must contact the controlling agency to determine its status

b) May be permitted if area is not in use (cold)

VFR flight in a Restricted Area:

CFAs are not charted

Controlled Firing Areas are shown on aeronautical charts by:

Secondary Radar

Which radar system uses both a ground-based interrogator and an aircraft-based transponder?

Transmitter

The _________ actually creates the high-powered radio pulses used by the radar system

Airport Surveillance Radar

The primary short-range radar currently used by FAA is

Mode C

Which transponder mode gives altitude information?

It is used to combat the problem of ground clutter

What is the purpose of the moving target indicator?

In certain circumstances, it can cause aircraft returns to disappear.

What problem is created by the use of moving target indicator circuitry?

False

pilot receives a collision resolution alert from his traffic collision avoidance systemand also receives conflicting directions from a radar controller, the pilot should follow the controller’s instructions.

HF

Which radio frequency band is used for long range ATC communications?

Cleveland Radio

When trying to contact the Cleveland Flight Service Station by radio, you should call it:

Notify ATC of the loss

If you lose any navigation equipment on your aircraft, you should:

Who are you calling, Who are you, Where are you, What do you want

In order, what are the four Ws of the general radio call format?

10 miles from the field

You are approaching a non-controlled airfield for landing.  What is an appropriate time for your first transmission?

Tango

Using the phonetic alphabet, what is the appropriate word to represent “T”?

Zulu

Using the phonetic alphabet, what is the appropriate word to represent “Z”?

False

It is never permissible to shorten one’s call sign.

Transmissometer

A pilot needs to accurately know the visibility on the airport when executing any instrument approach.  His/her ability to fly the aircraft to a safe landing requires the pilot be able to see runway environment.  The Federal Aviation Administration (FAA) has developed equipment to monitor and report the runway visibility.  This equipment is known as a:

DME

What information does a TACAN provide that a VOR does not?

2

You are flying at 12,000ft. AGL. When you pass directly over a VORTAC, what will your DME indication be?

ILS

Which of the following is a precision approach?

RVR

You are flying an ILS approach. What types of visibility will give you the best measurement of the visibility that you will encounter?

AM

NDBs operate on which radio band?

The signal can be overpowered by weather phenomena.

What is the disadvantage of using the AM radio band for aviation navigation?

To eliminate the distortion of the signal caused by obstructions that are relatively close to the transmitter.

Development of Doppler VOR was an attempt to:

4

How many satellite signals must be received for a valid GPS position?

Localizer and glide slope

ILSs combine two types of signals to make a precision approach. These signals are:

PAPI

Runway lighting helps pilots transition from instrument to visual condition for landing. A single bar lighting system that provides glide slope information is called a:

Southwest

If your CDI is centered with a FROM indication and 210 is dialed in, this means you are ________ of the station.

Northwest

If your CDI is centered with a TO indication and 130 is dialed in, this means you are ___________ of the station.

Which three conditions must exist for a thunderstorm to form?

Lifting action, sufficient moisture, and an unstable atmosphere

Which of the following is not an intensity of airframe icing?

Rapid

A ceiling is considered to be the lowest layer of broken (BKN) or overcast (OVC) clouds.

True

What are the four types of fronts?

Cold, warm, occluded, stationary

What causes weather?

The unequal heating of the Earth’s surface

In which layer of the atmosphere does weather occur? (We live in this layer too!)

Troposphere

Terminal facilities (tower/TRACONs) have the option to limit hazardous weather information broadcasts to within 25 miles of their airspace.

False

Which item is not included in a meteorological Aerodrome Report (METAR)?

Active Runway

What are the two types of Pilot Weather Reports (PIREPs).

Urgent (UUA) and Routine (UA)

What does the word “TEMPO” mean in a Terminal Aerodrome Fprecast?

A temporary weather condition will likely exist during the stated timeframe.

On precision runways, the runway edge lights are _______ until 2000 from the edge where they turn _______.

White/amber

Aircraft A is departing an airport.  Aircraft B will depart in front of A from an intersecting runway.  Before the tower controller clears A for its take off, B must:

a) be past the intersection of the two take off runways

b) be airborne and have turned so that it is no longer a factor to A’s take off

You are taxiing and see a black sign with a yellow “B” on it. This indicates

You are on taxiway B

Runways are marked in

White paint

After your initial call to a Tower, the controller will always have you report:

Where ever the traffic flow and your position makes most convenient for the controller

During daylight operations, the tower controller must space an arriving Category I aircraft so that it does not cross the landing threshold until the preceding landing Category I aircraft:

Is at least 3,000 ft. down the runway or Clears the runway

Which person in the control tower is responsible for preparing the ATIS?

Flight Data Controller

You take off and wish to enter the airport pattern.  After you make your first 90-degree turn, you are on:

Crosswind leg

If an aircraft lands on your runway, the tower controller must wait until it clears or is 6,000 ft. down the runway (Category III) before he can clear you for take-off.

False

The worst wake turbulence is always created by an aircraft that:

Heavy, slow and clean

The airplane taking off in front of you doesn’t start making wingtip vortices until

Its wings start to produce lift (nose wheel leaves the ground)

Wake turbulence;

Sinks at approximately 500 ft./min and breaks up approximately 1,000 ft. below the aircraft’s cruising altitude

Never land on pavement that is illuminated by blue lights because:

You’re landing on a taxiway

On a calm day, as they approach the ground, wingtip vortices will ted to:

Mover apart at about 5 knots

Which person in the tower is responsible for preventing runway incursions?

Ground controller

You are flying in the traffic pattern parallel to the runway but opposite the landing direction.  You are said to be on:

Downwind leg

You are taxiing and see a red sign with a white “ILS” on it.  This indicates:

It indicates ILS critical area hold position

Taxiways are marked in:

Yellow Paint

Which of the following is a valid clearance from the tower?

Cleared to land

Cleared for low approach

Cleared for touch and go

Which person in the control tower is responsible for processing field condition reports?

Flight data recorder

For the purpose of runway separation, a Category I aircraft is a:

Lightweight, single-engine, propeller-driven personal aircraft

For the purpose of runway separation, a Category II aircraft is a:

Lightweight, twin engine, propeller-driven aircraft weighing 12,500 or less

For the purpose of runway separation, a Category III aircraft is a:

Any aircraft not included in Category I or II

Pilots can find the Available Landing Distance for Land and Hold Short Operations by:

Checking the special notice section of the Airport Facility Directory Or Asking the tower controller

The calm wind runway should be used when the wind is:

Less than 5 knots

An aircraft that is following a much larger aircraft on final should:

Plan to stay higher than the large aircraft on final and land past its touch down point

Advanced technologies and oceanic procedures (ATOPS) can be used within: 

Both Atlantic and Pacific airspaces

ICAO uses a four letter code to identify airports. In the US all airports codes begin with a K except those in Alaska and Hawaii.  There the codes begin with:

P

Cooperation between US and Canadian ATC has reached such a level that in some areas US controllers are responsible for traffic over Canadian sovereign territory and vice versa.

True

What FIR covers most of the pacific ocean

Oakland

One of the International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) goals is to:

Standardize the world’s aviation systems around the world

How often do the tracks over the North Atlantic Ocean change?

Daily

When flying internationally an important thing to remember is

Transition altitudes/levels vary from country to country

NAT tracks have historically been separated by 1 degree of latitude.  Compliance with the new Performance Based Communications and Surveillance criteria allow the tracks to be placed

½ degree of latitude apart

For flights over the poles, due to navigation problems caused by longitude convergence and magnetic deviation, only INS or GPS systems (or a navigator using “Grid” navigation) will work.

True