FAA Private Pilot Knowledge Test

(Refer to figure 22, area 2; and figure 31.) At Coeur D'Alene , which frequency should be used as a Common Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF) to self-announce position and intentions?

122.8 MHz.

To get a complete weather briefing for the planned flight, the pilot should request

a standard briefing.

What procedure is recommended when climbing or descending VFR on an airway?

Execute gentle banks, left and right for continuous visual scanning of the airspace.

What is the lowest altitude permitted for acrobatic flight?

1,500 feet AGL.

With respect to passengers, what obligation, if any, does a pilot in command have concerning the use of safety belts?

The pilot in command must brief the passengers on the use of safety belts and notify them to fasten their safety belts during taxi, takeoff, and landing.

The amount of water vapor which air can hold depends on the

air temperature.

In which type of airspace are VFR flights prohibited?

Class A.

What should an owner or operator know about Airworthiness Directives (AD's)?

They are mandatory.

When must the battery in an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) be replaced (or recharged if the battery is rechargeable)?

After one-half the battery's useful life

Absence of the sky condition and visibility on an ATIS broadcast indicates that

the ceiling is at least 5,000 feet and visibility is 5 miles or more.

During operations at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL and at or above 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum distance above clouds requirement for VFR flight is

1,000 feet.

When departing behind a heavy aircraft, the pilot should avoid wake turbulence by maneuvering the aircraft

above and upwind from the heavy aircraft.

Clouds are divided into four families according to their

height range.

With certain exceptions, safety belts are required to be secured about passengers during

taxi, takeoffs, and landings

What is the antidote when a pilot has a hazardous attitude, such as 'Resignation'?

I am not helpless.

Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude for a pilot to operate an aircraft anywhere?

An altitude allowing, if a power unit fails, an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface.

A lighted heliport may be identified by a

green, yellow, and white rotating beacon.

If the grade of fuel used in an aircraft engine is lower than specified for the engine, it will most likely cause

detonation.

What clouds have the greatest turbulence

Cumulonimbus.

If the aircraft's radio fails, what is the recommended procedure when landing at a controlled airport?

Observe the traffic flow, enter the pattern, and look for a light signal from the tower.

When are the four forces that act on an airplane in equilibrium?

During unaccelerated flight.

Refer to figure 48.) What is the difference between area A and area E on the airport depicted?

'A' may be used for taxi and takeoff; 'E' may be used only as an overrun.

Who is primarily responsible for maintaining an aircraft in airworthy condition?

Owner or operator.

Possible mountain wave turbulence could be anticipated when winds of 40 knots or greater blow

across a mountain ridge, and the air is stable.

Basic radar service in the terminal radar program is best described as

safety alerts, traffic advisories, and limited vectoring to VFR aircraft.

For private pilot operations, a Second-Class Medical Certificate issued to a 42-year-old pilot on July 15, this year, will expire at midnight on

July 31, 2 years later.

If it is necessary to set the altimeter from 29.15 to 29.85, what change occurs?

700-foot increase in indicated altitude.

Completion of an annual condition inspection and the return of the aircraft to service should always be indicated by

an appropriate notation in the aircraft maintenance records.

An operable 4096-code transponder and Mode C encoding altimeter are required in

Class B airspace and within 30 miles of the Class B primary airport.

What is the definition of a high-performance airplane?

An airplane with an engine of more than 200 horsepower.

What aircraft inspections are required for rental aircraft that are also used for flight instruction?

Annual condition and 100-hour inspections.

The most frequent type of ground or surface-based temperature inversion is that which is produced by

terrestrial radiation on a clear, relatively still night.

If an altimeter setting is not available before flight, to which altitude should the pilot adjust the altimeter?

The elevation of the departure area.

A pilot should be able to overcome the symptoms or avoid future occurrences of hyperventilation by

slowing the breathing rate, breathing into a bag, or talking aloud.

If a certificated pilot changes permanent mailing address and fails to notify the FAA Airmen Certification Branch of the new address, the pilot is entitled to exercise the privileges of the pilot certificate for a period of only

30 days after the date of the move.

FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter specifically related to Airmen are issued under which subject number?

60.

The pilot in command is required to hold a type rating in which aircraft?

Aircraft having a gross weight of more than 12,500 pounds.

What is an important airspeed limitation that is not color coded on airspeed indicators?

Maneuvering speed.

When does P-factor cause the airplane to yaw to the left?

When at high angles of attack.

What is the antidote when a pilot has a hazardous attitude, such as 'Macho'?

Taking chances is foolish.

What are characteristics of unstable air?

Turbulence and good surface visibility.

According to regulations pertaining to privileges and limitations, a private pilot may

not pay less than the pro rata share of the operating expenses of a flight with passengers provided the expenses involve only fuel, oil, airport expenditures, or rental fees.

VNO is defined as the

maximum structural cruising speed.

What is one procedure to aid in cooling an engine that is overheating?

Enrichen the fuel mixture.

When two or more aircraft are approaching an airport for the purpose of landing, the right-of-way belongs to the aircraft

at the lower altitude, but it shall not take advantage of this rule to cut in front of or to overtake another.

How does frost affect the lifting surfaces of an airplane on takeoff?

Frost may prevent the airplane from becoming airborne at normal takeoff speed.

The best method to use when looking for other traffic at night is to

look to the side of the object and scan slowly.

One weather phenomenon which will always occur when flying across a front is a change in the

wind direction.

VFR approaches to land at night should be accomplished

the same as during daytime.

Which is normally prohibited when operating a restricted category civil aircraft?

Flight over a densely populated area.

A chair-type parachute must have been packed by a certificated and appropriately rated parachute rigger within the preceding

180 days.

(Refer to figure 49.) If the wind is as shown by the landing direction indicator, the pilot should land on

Runway 18 and expect a crosswind from the right.

What is the specific fuel requirement for flight under VFR during daylight hours in an airplane?

Enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and to fly after that for 30 minutes at normal cruising speed.

An ATC radar facility issues the following advisory to a pilot during a local flight:

''TRAFFIC 2 O'CLOCK, 5 MILES, NORTHBOUND...'' Where should the pilot look for this traffic?

Between directly ahead and 90° to the right.

A certificated private pilot may not act as pilot in command of an aircraft towing a glider unless there is entered in the pilot's logbook a minimum of

100 hours of pilot-in-command time in the aircraft category, class, and type, if required, that the pilot is using to tow a glider.

An ATC clearance provides

authorization to proceed under specified traffic conditions in controlled airspace.

To update a previous weather briefing, a pilot should request

an abbreviated briefing.

(Refer to figure 49.) Select the proper traffic pattern and runway for landing.

Right-hand traffic and Runway 18.

A 100-hour inspection was due at 3302.5 hours. The 100-hour inspection was actually done at 3309.5 hours. When is the next 100-hour inspection due?

3402.5 hours.

Who should not participate in the Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO) program?

Student pilots.

Each recreational or private pilot is required to have

a biennial flight review.

If the engine oil temperature and cylinder head temperature gauges have exceeded their normal operating range, the pilot may have been operating with

too much power and with the mixture set too lean.

If instructed by ground control to taxi to Runway 9, the pilot may proceed

to the next intersecting runway where further clearance is required.

(Refer to figure 2.) If an airplane weighs 2,300 pounds, what approximate weight would the airplane structure be required to support during a 60° banked turn while maintaining altitude?

4,600 pounds.

(Refer to figure 24.) On what course should the VOR receiver (OBS) be set in order to navigate direct from Majors Airport (area 1) to Quitman VORTAC (area 2)?

101°.

With respect to the certification of airmen, which is a class of aircraft?

Single-engine land and sea, multiengine land and sea.

What action is required when two aircraft of the same category converge, but not head-on?

The aircraft on the left shall give way.

From whom should a departing VFR aircraft request radar traffic information during ground operations?

Ground control, on initial contact.

Normal VFR operations in Class D airspace with an operating control tower require the ceiling and visibility to be at least

1,000 feet and 3 miles.

(Refer to figure 49.) The arrows that appear on the end of the north/south runway indicate that the area

cannot be used for landing, but may be used for taxiing and takeoff.

When flying in the airspace underlying Class B airspace, the maximum speed authorized is

200 knots.

Pre-takeoff briefing of passengers for a flight is the responsibility of

the pilot.

To act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers, the pilot must have made three takeoffs and three landings within the preceding 90 days in an aircraft of the same

category, class, and type, if a type rating is required.

To act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers, a pilot must show by logbook endorsement the satisfactory completion of a flight review or completion of a pilot proficiency check within the preceding

24 calendar months.

An ATC radar facility issues the following advisory to a pilot flying north in a calm wind:

''TRAFFIC 9 O'CLOCK, 2 MILES, SOUTHBOUND...'' Where should the pilot look for this traffic?

West.

Which aircraft has the right-of-way over the other aircraft listed?

Aircraft towing other aircraft.

Why is frost considered hazardous to flight?

Frost spoils the smooth flow of air over the wings, thereby decreasing lifting capability.

(Refer to figure 50.) The segmented circle indicates that the airport traffic is

left-hand for Runway 36 and right-hand for Runway 18.

The pitot system provides impact pressure for which instrument?

Airspeed indicator.

Thunderstorms which generally produce the most intense hazard to aircraft are

squall line thunderstorms.

What is the antidote when a pilot has a hazardous attitude, such as 'Antiauthority'?

Follow the rules.

If an aircraft is involved in an accident which results in substantial damage to the aircraft, the nearest NTSB field office should be notified

immediately.

Which basic flight maneuver increases the load factor on an airplane as compared to straight-and-level flight?

Turns.

To act as pilot in command of an aircraft towing a glider, a pilot is required to have made within the preceding 12 months

at least three actual or simulated glider tows while accompanied by a qualified pilot

Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, an aircraft may not be operated closer than what distance from any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure?

500 feet.

A weather briefing that is provided when the information requested is 6 or more hours in advance of the proposed departure time is

an outlook briefing.

After landing at a tower-controlled airport, when should the pilot contact ground control?

When advised by the tower to do so.

Which aircraft has the right-of-way over the other aircraft listed?

Glider.

The presence of ice pellets at the surface is evidence that there

is a temperature inversion with freezing rain at a higher altitude.

VFR flight in controlled airspace above 1,200 feet AGL and below 10,000 feet MSL requires a minimum visibility and vertical cloud clearance of

3 miles, and 500 feet below or 1,000 feet above the clouds in controlled airspace.

The airworthiness of an aircraft can be determined by a preflight inspection and a

review of the maintenance records.

What feature is associated with a temperature inversion?

A stable layer of air.

One of the main functions of flaps during approach and landing is to

increase the angle of descent without increasing the airspeed.

An ATC radar facility issues the following advisory to a pilot flying on a heading of 360°:

''TRAFFIC 10 O'CLOCK, 2 MILES, SOUTHBOUND...'' Where should the pilot look for this traffic?

Northwest.

With respect to the certification of aircraft, which is a category of aircraft?

Normal, utility, acrobatic.

(Refer to figure 4.) Which color identifies the normal flap operating range?

The white arc.

The suffix 'nimbus,' used in naming clouds, means

The suffix 'nimbus,' used in naming clouds, means

What is the antidote when a pilot has a hazardous attitude, such as 'Invulnerability'?

It could happen to me.

A slightly high glide slope indication from a precision approach path indicator is

three white lights and one red light.

Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude required for a pilot to operate an aircraft over other than a congested area?

An altitude of 500 feet AGL, except over open water or a sparsely populated area, which requires 500 feet from any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure.