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Last updated 2:30 PM on 7/11/26
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50 Terms

1
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what is the definition of a true pathogen

does not require a weakened host to cause disease

2
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endemic infections

are routinely detected in a population or region

3
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what is a pandemic

a widespread disease outbreak that spreads to numerous countries during a specific time frame

4
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why are Koch’s postulates important for microbiology

they allow us to identify the causative pathogen of many infectious diseases

5
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which of the following is an endogenous source of infection

bacteria from the skin entering a surgical incision

6
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host- microbe interactions

involve a dynamic give and take between microbe and the host

7
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examples of health host-microbe interactions with our normal microbiota include all except

microbiota disruption

8
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the preference of a pathogen for a specific host is

tropism

9
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which factor is responsible for many emerging pathogens in humans

expanded host or tissue range of the pathogen

10
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properties that contribute to virulence

are determined by both the microbe and the host, and may evolve over time

11
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which is not a category of virulence factors

attenuation

12
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what is an example of a virulence factor that is related to nutrient acquisition

iron-binding protyein

13
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an attenuated pathogen

has lost virulence factors needed to cause disease in an immune competent host

14
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ID50 describes

the number of cells or virions needed to establish an infection in 50 percent of exposed host

15
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which type of bacteria toxin is matched incorrectly with its description

toxemia

16
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exotoxins are

secreted and the targets of some childhood vaccines

17
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toxemia is a condition

where a toxin has entered the bloodstream resulting in systemic effects

18
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septic shock is typically associated with

either gram-positive or gram-negative infections

19
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which method of hiding from the host immune system is incorrectly matched with its description

living intracellularly: a pathogen resides on the surface of a host cell where it is hidden by host cell surface molecules

20
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which mode of transmission is not addressed by transmission precaution

vector

21
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droplet and airborne precautions both

involve diseases of the respiratory system and/or disease transmitted through a respiratory route

22
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which of the following does not describe adaptive immunity

generalized responses that don’t vary based on the pathogen being fought

23
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which of the following features are shared between both innate and adaptative immunity

recognize diverse pathogens, eliminate identified invaders and discriminate between self and foreign antigens.

24
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the general goal of first line defense is to

prevent pathogen entry

25
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which of the following is an example of mechanical barrier

the mucociliary escalator

26
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which of the following is true about antimicrobial peptides

produced by leukocytes

27
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which of the following is false about the enzyme lysozyme

destroys viruses and fungi

28
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what are the two categories of second-line defenses

assorted molecular factors and leukocytes

29
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in the correct order, what are the names of the fluid that leaving the capillaries, going into the space between the cells and then into the lymphatic capillaries

plasma, interstitial fluid, lymph

30
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what is edema

tissue swelling

31
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which of the following are primary lymphoid tissues

thymus and bone marrow

32
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which of the following is an agranulocyte

dendritic cell

33
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which cell type is the most numerous white blood cell in circulation, is the first leukocyte recruited from the bloodstream to injured tissue, and releases potent antimicrobial peptides

neutrophils

34
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which cell type has a nucleus that appears to have two lobes connected by a thin band, has granules that contain diverse enzymes and antimicrobial toxins, and has mediators that are expelled in response to certain allergens and parasites

eosinphils

35
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which cells type works to prevent our immune system from attack self and from over reacting to nonthreatening substances in abundant in tissue next to body openings, and phagocytizes a broad range of antigens

dendritic cells

36
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which cell type is the largest agranular white blood cell mature as they leave the circulatory system and increase cell levels due to chronic infections ad inflammation, autoimmune disorders, and certain cancers

monocytes

37
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the branches of adaptive immune

the cellular response and the humoral response

38
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all of the following apply to T cells except

coordinate the humoral response by making antibodies

39
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a substance that may trigger an immune repones if presented in the right context is termed an

antigen

40
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what is the role of B cell receptors and t cell receptors in the immune response

to recognize specific epitopes of an antigen

41
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the cellular branch of adaptive immunity

is organized by T helper cells and carried out by T cytotoxic cells

42
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what is the role of MHC I in the immune response

MHC I is found on all body cells except red blood cells and presents a sample of cellular proteins, including those of any intracellular pathogens, to T cells

43
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when matching a donated organ tissue to a recipient, it is necessary that the ___ of the donor and the recipient is similar as possible

MHCs

44
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cytotoxic T cells eliminate pathogens by

releasing chemicals which cause infected or cancerous cells to undergo apoptosis

45
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what is the role of memory cells

remain in the lymphoid tissue to rapidly proliferate and differentiate upon subsequent expose to the same pathogen

46
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T- independent antigens

are usually polysaccharides and able to bind multiple B cells receptors on a given B cell

47
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The most abundant antibody class in the body, found in all body fluids is

IgG

48
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The antibody class which is involved in fighting parasites is

IgE

49
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Generally, the first antibody class made upon primary antigen exposure is

IgM

50
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a patient antibody titer which shows an increasing level of IgM but very little IgG would liekly indicate that

the patient is in the early stages of developing an immune response