Physio Exam IV

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159 Terms

1
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what are the layers of the heart from outside in?

endocardium

myocardium

visceral pericardium

paricardial cavity

parietal pericardium

2
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What is Beck’s Triad? what is diagnosis?

becks triad: low BP, distension of jugular veins, muffled heart sounds

acute cardial tamponade → build-up of fluid, blood, or air in pericardial sac that compresses the heart

3
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what is the order of vessels in the heart?

arteries, arterioles, capillaries, venules, veins

4
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where is the site of greatest vascular resistance?

arterioles

5
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Which vessels use high pressure system and have elastic walls to maintain BP?

arteries

6
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which vessels use a low pressure system and is affected more by gravity?

Veins

7
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what does capacitance vessels refer to?

the systemic veins that contain the largest volume of blood

8
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which vessels use:

1) skeletal muscle as a pump

2) changes in intrathoracic pressure due to breathing as a pump

veins

9
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what are central venous sinuses?

aka dural sinuses

these sinuses have rigid walls and do not collapse

in the brain

10
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what are the bends?

decompression sickness

caused by increased pressure pushing nitrogen gas into the blood

11
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what is the driving force of blood pressure?

the difference in pressure between the aorta and the large central veins

12
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Flow = what?

Ohm’s Law (pressure)

Flow = difference in pressure between 2 points/Resistance 

13
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Stenosis = increased ________ = _________ flow

resistance

decreased

14
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what is pulmonary hypertension?

  1. excessive pressure in the pulmonary arteries

  2. this can result in right-sided heart failure

  3. results in fluid backing up into the legs, veins in the neck, liver, and so on.

<ol><li><p>excessive pressure in the pulmonary arteries</p></li><li><p>this can result in right-sided heart failure</p></li><li><p>results in fluid backing up into the legs, veins in the neck, liver, and so on. </p></li></ol><p></p>
15
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what causes resistance to go up?

  1. increased length

  2. increased viscosity

  3. decreased radius 

16
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The longer the straw → the ______ it takes to drink

The thicker the fluid → the _______ it takes to drink

the larger the diameter of the straw → the _______ it takes to drink

longer

longer

faster

17
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why do capillaries have low resistance?

when in parallel, resistance decreases

bc there is a network of capillaries, the resistance is very low

18
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T/F low compliance = stiff

True

19
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what is the equation for compliance?

change in volume/change in pressure = compliance

20
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lymph have ____-____ capillaries

blind-ended

21
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what percent of the total circulating protein is returned via lymph?

25-50%

22
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what lymphatic duct drains the right side of the head, right arm, and right side of chest? what drains everything else?

right lymphatic duct

thoracic duct

23
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what controls capillaries?

recapillary sphincters

24
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how are proteins taken up in cappilaries?

through endocytosis

25
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T/F gasses and lipid-soluble substances readily diffuse

true

26
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T/F formed elements in the blood do not diffuse

True

27
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what is the MOST important mechanism for exchange in the capillaries ?

diffusion

28
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<p>explain the transcapillary fluid exchange</p>

explain the transcapillary fluid exchange

when hydrostatic pressure is greater than blood colloidal osmotic pressure, there is filtration because fluids exit the capillaries.

when hydrostatic pressure=blood colloidal osmotic pressure, there is no net movement

when the hydrostatic pressure is less than blood colloidal osmotic pressure, reabsorption takes place

29
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what is the equation for net fluid flux in capillaries?

Net fluid flux= (capillary hydrostatic pressure - interstitial hydrostatic pressure) - (capillary oncontic pressure - interstitial oncotic pressure)

30
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what are some reasons for edema?

can be due to increased venous pressure due to a clot

can be due to lack of oncotic pressure

inflammation/sepsis

or lymphatic obstruction

31
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what is cardiac muscle like?

innvoluntary

striated 

have intercalated discs with gap junctions

32
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electrical stimulation of heart muscles uses what ion?

Ca2+

33
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define contractility

the ability of a muscle to contract in response to stimuli

force of contraction is dependent on regulation of calcium

34
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What is the SA node?

collection of specialized myocytes that spontaneously depolarize to generate action potentials 

35
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what is the only electrical communication between the atria and the ventricles?

AV node

36
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what are the branches of the Bundle of His?

right bundle branch

left bundle branch

  • divides into two fascicles:

    • anterior fascicle

    • posterior fascicle

37
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right vagus input goes directly into which node of the heart? left vagus?

right: SA node

left: AV

38
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when the heart is going through contraction, what is happening in each phase?

phase 0: deopolarization, channels rapid upstroke immediately after stimulation, Na+ quickly exits the cell into cytoplasm

phase 1: partial repolarization, K+ is entering the heart

phase 2: plateue phase, dramatic slowing of repolarization, Ca 2+ is exiting ot cytoplasm

phase 3: repolarization back to -90mV, relative refractory period, K+ re-enters the cell

phase 4: reaches resting membrane potential 

<p>phase 0: deopolarization, channels rapid upstroke immediately after stimulation, Na+ quickly exits the cell into cytoplasm</p><p>phase 1: partial repolarization, K+ is entering the heart</p><p>phase 2: plateue phase, dramatic slowing of repolarization, Ca 2+ is exiting ot cytoplasm</p><p>phase 3: repolarization back to -90mV, relative refractory period, K+ re-enters the cell</p><p>phase 4: reaches resting membrane potential&nbsp;</p><p></p>
39
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why do Nodal cells spontaneously generate action potentials during phase 4 of contraction?

their maximum membrane potential difference is -60 mV and their phase 0 triggers about -40 mV

40
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what do the class I-class IV antiarrhythmics block?

class I: sodium channel blockers

class II: beta blockers

class III: potassium channel blockers

class IV: calcium channel blockers

41
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why do calcium channel blockers work for arrhythmias?

help heart relax and keeps calcium out which decreases contractility and increases compliance. this also lowers blood pressure

42
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why are refractory periods important?

they protect against rapid atrial arrythmias

43
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what is a positive chronotropic effect?

increases heart rate

uses norepi and beta adrenergic receptors

sympathetic innervation

44
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what is a negative chronotropic effect?

slows heart rate

parasympathetic innervation

ACh acts on muscarinic receptors

45
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what are signs of sympathetic nervous stress?

tachycardia

pale, cool skin

sweating

dilated pupils

46
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what are intrinsic causes of sympathetic nervous stress?

pain, fear, anxiety, and hypotension

pts experiences MI’s and abdominal aortic aneurysms have these symptoms

47
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what is occurring during the different phases of the EKG?

P wave: atrial depolarization - atria contract

PR segment: AV node gets input from SA node

QRS: ventricular depolarization begins and atrial repolarization occurs - ventricles contract 

ST segment: ventricular depolarization is complete

T wave: ventricular repolarization begins - ventricles relax

48
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what is a normal heart rate?

60-100 bpm

49
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what is a normal heart axis?

between -30 to 110 degrees

50
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what can cause right axis deviation?

right ventricular hypertrophy

51
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what causes left axis deviation?

indicate heart is bein pushed up → pregnancy, hypertrophy, or obesity

52
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what will Lead 1 and Lead aVF tell you about the axis?

if both are positive, it indicates a normal axis

if both are negative it is an extreme axis

if one is positive and one is negative it is a left or right axis deviation

53
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on an EKG paper, 5mm is how long?

0.2 seconds

54
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how many squares in an EKG in normal for P wave? (atrial depolarization)

3 small squares

<p>3 small squares</p>
55
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how many squares is normal for a PR interval in an EKG?

3-5 small squares

if PR interval is greater than 200 ms (greater than 5 squares) then it is a 1st-degree heart block

<p>3-5 small squares </p><p>if PR interval is greater than 200 ms (greater than 5 squares) then it is a 1st-degree heart block</p>
56
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<p>what causes a delta wave/slurring upstroke in an EKG?</p>

what causes a delta wave/slurring upstroke in an EKG?

when there is a bundle of Kent that conducts more quickly than the AV node which excites one ventricle early

short PR interval and longer QES with slurred upstroke

57
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what is a normal QRS width?

70-100 ms → electrical impulse came from atria

if it is longer, the electrical impulse came from the ventricles

<p>70-100 ms → electrical impulse came from atria</p><p>if it is longer, the electrical impulse came from the ventricles</p>
58
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what is a normal QT interval?

360-440 ms

increases in slower HRs and decreases in faster HRs

<p>360-440 ms</p><p>increases in slower HRs and decreases in faster HRs</p>
59
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ST segment (Ventricule Completed Depolarizing)

what does an elevated or depressed ST segment indicate?

Elevated: concerning for MI

depressed: concerning for ischemia

flat is normal

60
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T wave (ventricular repolarization

is an inverted T wave normal?

it can be, but if it is persistently inverted it can be an indication of a prior MI

61
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what is the U wave?

it is a rare wave after the T wave. it is small and can sometimes be seen in electrolyte abnormalities and medication overdoses

62
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what are the 4 types of heart block?

1st degree: PR interval is greater than 0.2ms

2nd degree (Mobitz I): progressive PR + dropped beat

2nd degree (Mobitz II): Fixed PR interval + Dropped beat

3rd degree: No relation between P waves + QRS

<p>1st degree: PR interval is greater than 0.2ms </p><p>2nd degree (Mobitz I): progressive PR + dropped beat</p><p>2nd degree (Mobitz II): Fixed PR interval + Dropped beat </p><p>3rd degree: No relation between P waves + QRS</p>
63
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in a first degree block, what is happening with conduction?

delayed conduction in the atria

64
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what is happening with conduction in a 2nd degree heart block?

fatigue with resultant filure or intermittent failure of the bundle of His/Purkinje fibers

65
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what is happening with conduction in a 3rd degree heart block?

complete failure of the His/Purkinje fibers

66
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list out the diastoles and systoles in the cardiac cycle

  1. ventricular diastole: AV valves open and ventricles fill passively (70%) of filling is passive

  2. atrial systole: Atrial kick, a small amount of extra blood is pumped into the ventricles 

  3. isovolumic ventricular contraction: volume remains the same, but the contraction of the ventricle closes the AV valves and increases the pressure

  4. ventricular ejection: semilunar valves open as the ventricular pressure exceeds the aorta/pulmonary artery’s pressure and blood is pumped into these vessels

    1. isovolumic relaxation: volume remains the same, semilunar valves close as ventricular pressure decreases. The atria fill passively with blood. 

67
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at what point do the atrioventricular valves open?

when the atrial pressure exceeds the ventricular pressure

68
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A _______ is a pressure wave that expands the arterial walls

pulse

69
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what causes the dicrotic notch?

when the aortic valve closes - it is a quick dip in aortic pressure

70
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what is Chordae tendineae’s job?

anchor the AV valves to the papillary muscles

when ventricles contract, the muscle pulls on the papillary muscles and the chordae tendineae to close the AV valves.

71
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<p>Explain the a, c, and v waves in the atrial pressure line of Wiggers diagram</p>

Explain the a, c, and v waves in the atrial pressure line of Wiggers diagram

a wave : atrial systole

c wave: bulge of the mitral valve into the atria - increasing the pressure 

v wave: passive atrial filling

72
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In a 3rd degree heart block why can the jugular vein look distended?

the atria can be going through systole at the same time as the ventricles → pumps against a closed AV valve causing a back flow of blood up into the jugular veins

73
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<p>in the phonocardiogram portion of the diagram, what does the 1, 2 and 3 refer to? (S1, S2, S3)</p>

in the phonocardiogram portion of the diagram, what does the 1, 2 and 3 refer to? (S1, S2, S3)

S1: closing of the AV valves

S2: closing of the SL valves

S3: rapid ventricular filling

74
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T/F turbulent flow is more likely with increased velocity

True

75
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Laminar flow is what?

normal and smooth flow

it is related to the diameter of the vessel, and to the viscosity of hte blood

76
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what is Reynold’s number?

a number used to compare laminar and turbulent flow

77
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when taking blood pressure, you are forcing what kind of flow?

turbulent flow → causes korotkoff sounds when compressing brachial artery and slowly releasing it

78
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what is trasnmural pressure? what is the equation?

the pressure gradient across the wall of a membrane 

determines if vessel expands or collapses

Transmural Pressure = internal pressure - external pressure 

for example, a decrease in external pressure would allow increased internal pressure and increased blood flow (if transmural pressure is constant)

79
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Blood flow creates a force on the endothelium called what?

sheer stress

this stimulates cilia on endothelial cells

80
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Law of Laplace

Tension decreases with the size of the vessel → why capillaries don’t collapse

increase in radius of a cylinder = increased tension 

81
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what is bernoulli’s equation? how does it relate to blood vessels?

in a tube, total energy is constant

this means that if a vessel is scarred, causing increased velocity, there is a corresponding decreased pressure so vessel maintains itself and isn’t ruptured.

82
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what are some reasons for murmurs?

due to stenosis of valves

or regurgitation

or increased flow such as pregnancy and anemia

83
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draw out and understand the pressure-volume loop

  • Point A = end systolic volume mitral valve opens 

  • Point B = passively filling volume 

  • Point C = mitral valve closes 

  • Point D = aortic valve opens 

  • Point F = valve closes because pressure is too much 

<ul><li><p class="Paragraph SCXO39119451 BCX0" style="text-align: left;"><span style="background-color: inherit; line-height: 20.7px; color: windowtext;"><span>Point A = end systolic volume mitral valve opens</span></span><span style="line-height: 20.7px; color: windowtext;"><span>&nbsp;</span></span></p></li><li><p class="Paragraph SCXO39119451 BCX0" style="text-align: left;"><span style="background-color: inherit; line-height: 20.7px; color: windowtext;"><span>Point B = passively filling volume</span></span><span style="line-height: 20.7px; color: windowtext;"><span>&nbsp;</span></span></p></li><li><p class="Paragraph SCXO39119451 BCX0" style="text-align: left;"><span style="background-color: inherit; line-height: 20.7px; color: windowtext;"><span>Point C = mitral valve closes</span></span><span style="line-height: 20.7px; color: windowtext;"><span>&nbsp;</span></span></p></li><li><p class="Paragraph SCXO39119451 BCX0" style="text-align: left;"><span style="background-color: inherit; line-height: 20.7px; color: windowtext;"><span>Point D = aortic valve opens</span></span><span style="line-height: 20.7px; color: windowtext;"><span>&nbsp;</span></span></p></li><li><p class="Paragraph SCXO39119451 BCX0" style="text-align: left;"><span style="background-color: inherit; line-height: 20.7px; color: windowtext;"><span>Point F = valve closes because pressure is too much</span></span><span style="line-height: 20.7px; color: windowtext;"><span>&nbsp;</span></span></p></li></ul><p></p>
84
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Cardiac output is what?

the volume of blood (L) pumped by each ventricle per minute

85
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why is low Cardiac output concerning?

inadequate tissue perfusion → shock!

86
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Cardiac output equation 

CO = (SV x HR)/1000

CO= cardiac output

SV= stroke volume

HR= heart rate

87
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if cardiac rate is controlled by ANS, what controls stroke volume?

partially ANS control

88
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ionotropic?

increase force of contraction

89
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increasing preload OR decreasing afterload does what do stroke volume?

increases it

90
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what is the Ejection fraction?

the percentage of blood pumped out of each ventricle in one beat

EF= SV/EDV x 100%

91
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what range is ejection fraction (EF) normal? when is it heart failure?

normal EF: 55-70%

heart failure: <40%

92
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how does loss of contractility impact ejection fraction?

it decreases it

93
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how does left sided heart failure present?

restlessness

confusion

tachycardia

cyanosis

pulmonary congestion

exertional dyspnea

94
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how does right sided heart failure present?

fatigue

increased peripheral venous pressure

ascites

enlarged liver and spleen

edema

distended jugular veins

95
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what is cardiac index?

cardiac index= cardiac output/body surface area 

normal is 2.5-4 L/min/m2 at rest 

96
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what is Frank-Starling’s principle? (the relationship between left ventricle EDV and SV). What would he say are the main factors affecting stroke volume?

increased diastolic filling=increased SV

preload, force of contraction, afterload

97
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what increases preload?

increasing blood volume

rhythmic skeletal muscle contraction

deep inspiration

atrial systole

venoconstriction

98
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what increases afterload?

increased resistance to blood flow

decreased compliance of an SL valve or the great vessels themselves

99
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what does a left-ward shift in the Frank-starling curve indicate?

greater contractility

100
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<p>what does an upward shift in the loop indicate?</p>

what does an upward shift in the loop indicate?

decreased compliance