ASCP - Clinical Chemistry

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Last updated 6:59 PM on 7/2/26
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103 Terms

1
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Oxycodone - clearance organ

Liver

2
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Oxycodone metabolism - major pathway enzyme + metabolite

CYP3A4 into noroxycodone

3
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Oxycodone metabolism - minor pathway enzyme + metabolite

CYP2D6 into oxymorphone

4
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HbCC, HbSS disease - test for long-term glucose management

Fructosamine (non-enzymatic glucose binding to protein)

5
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IV contamination of CMP would result in falsely high or low results?

Falsely low due to dilution

6
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Which treatment can interfere with accuracy of a glucometer using glucose oxidase-based test strips

Vitamin C (ascorbic acid) > low glucose reading

7
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Disease associated with elevated Alk phos, elevated urinary excretion of pyridinium collagen cross-links (deoxypyridinoline, Dyd), vision changes

Paget disease

8
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Tumor marker assays from different manufactuers can or cannot be directly compared

Cannot - assays are not standarized

9
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Which pre-analytical factor is important to know to establish the correct time of collection AFTER dosing for a new drug

Volume of distribution (has be be achieved before collection, esp for drugs with high Vd - digoxin, cyclosporin, lithium)

10
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<p>Which spectrophotometric technique is depicted in the diagram</p>

Which spectrophotometric technique is depicted in the diagram

Nephelometry (measures scattered light at an angle away from the incident light path)

11
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Obesity leads to ___ cystatin C levels which then can ____ GFR

increased; underestimate

12
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Serum concentration of thyroglobulin (Tg) is normal in which thyroid condition?

PTC

13
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Which 3 medications can cause an acute increase in fT4 or fT3 and why?

Carbamazepine, phenytoin, furosemide

Compete with binding of T4 and T3 to serum proteins like thyroxine binding globulin > can cause decrease in TSH in some instances
Chronic administration eventually leads to system re-equilibrium

14
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Diagnosis: Elevated serum cortisol + urinary free cortisol > not suppressed by high-dose dexamethasone > low plasma ACTH

Adrenal Cushing’s syndrome

<p>Adrenal Cushing’s syndrome </p>
15
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Diagnosis: Elevated serum cortisol + urinary free cortisol > not suppressed by high-dose dexamethasone > high plasma ACTH

Cushing’s syndrome from ectopic ACTH secreting tumor

<p>Cushing’s syndrome from ectopic ACTH secreting tumor</p>
16
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Procalcitonin - clearance organ

Kidneys (impaired renal function causes falsely elevated serum levels)

17
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Which technique should be used to measure testosterone levels in females, children, and hypogonadal males?

Mass spectrometry - precise quantification of testosterone concentrations as these populations have much lower testosterone levels (vs immunoassay)

18
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Diagnosis: Macrocytic anemia with elevated homocysteine and normal MMA

Folate deficiency

<p>Folate deficiency</p>
19
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Diagnosis: Macrocytic anemia with elevated homocysteine and MMA

Vitamin B12 deficiency

<p>Vitamin B12 deficiency </p>
20
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Blood gas specimen is exposed to air - are the levels of PO2, PCO2, and pH increased/decreased/unchanged?

PO2 + pH > increased (PO2 air > PO2 blood; decreased PCO2 leads to less H+ ions)

PCO2 > decreased (PCO2 air < PCO2 blood)

21
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Etiologies of pseudohypokalemia (not including hemolysis)

Traumatic phlebotomy, thrombocytosis, leukocytosis, collection in improper anti-coagulant (K2 EDTA)

22
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High-sensitivity cardiac troponin (hs-cTn) level should be above what percentile in order to help diagnose acute MI

99th percentile

23
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Which components of a lipid panel are affected by eating prior to collection

Triglycerides and calculated LDL

After fatty meal, chylomicrons (made up of 80% TGs) enter blood stream via lymphatics and can increase TG levels for up to 10 hours
Calculated LDL = TC - HDL - (TG/5); increasing TG decreases calculated LDL

24
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For a new moderate or high complexity test (CLIA non-waived test), which assay performance specifications must be evaluated prior to implementing the new test

Precision, accuracy, reportable range, reference intervals

25
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For a CLIA waved test, which assay performance specifications must be evaluated prior to implementing the new test

No performance evaluation is required - lab only needs to adhere to manufacturer’s instructions

26
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For non-waived tests that are modified FDA-approved or non-FDA approved, what additional criteria must be established prior to implementation of the new test

Analytical sensitivity and specificity

27
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Serum and urine bone markers are _____ (elevated/decreased) in fractures

Elevated - remain high for up to 1 year

28
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Serum and urine bone markers are _____ (elevated/decreased) in pregnancy

Elevated - peak at term

29
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Serum and urine bone markers are _____ (elevated/decreased) with use of corticosteroids

Elevated

30
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Serum and urine bone markers are _____ (high/low) in winter and _____ (high/low) in summer

High; low (due to vitamin D exposure)

31
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Serum and urine bone markers are at _____ (peak/nadir) in the morning and _____ (peak/nadir) in the afternoon

Peak; nadir

32
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Delta bilirubin level calculation formula

Delta bilirubin = total bilirubin - (unconjugated bili + conjugated bili)

33
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Delta bilirubin is bound to which protein

Albumin

34
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Delta bilirubin is metabolically _____ (active/inactive)

Inactive

35
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Why is lipase the preferred marker for acute pancreatitis

Longer elevation in the serum compared to amylase and more specific

36
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Which substances cause a positive interference with Jaffe-based measurement of creatinine

Ketones, glucose, cephalosporins, elevated A1c

37
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The Friedewald equation _____ (underestimates/overestimates) LDL-C when TG concentration is at or above 150 mg/dL (for patients with very high risk ASCVD (<70 mg/mL)

Underestimates

38
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In which three scenarios should the Friedewald equation NOT be used for calculation of LDL-C

Non-fasting patients

TG > 400 mg/dL

Type III hyperlipoproteinemia

39
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Give two examples of drugs where it is important to monitor the free drug concentration

Phenytoin

Valproic Acid

These are highly protein-bound drugs (>70%) and their therapeutic and toxic effects are directly related to their free drug concentration

40
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Secretin stimulation testing is done to evaluate what disease process?

Pancreatic sufficiency

41
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In the secretin stimulation test, what analyte is measured after the stimulation with secretin

Bicarbonate

42
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APAP - major metabolism pathway (>90%) + clearance organ

Glucuronidation and sulfation conjugation pathways; Kidneys

43
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APAP - minor metabolism pathway + metabolite

CYP2E1 (P450); NAPQI (highly toxic)

44
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APAP overdose - mechanism

Accumulation of NAPQI due to saturation of major pathway and decreased elimination from depletion of hepatic glutathione stores

45
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APAP - NAPQI metabolism

Hepatic glutathione rapidly complexes to form non-toxic cysteine or mercapturic acid conjugates

46
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APAP overdose - NAC mechanism of action

Increases production of glutathione (+ possibly sulfate) to inhibit the formation of NAPQI and eliminating formed NAPQI

47
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Which detection technique is the least sensitive for directly detecting a low concentration of an analyte in solution

Absorbance spectrophotometry

48
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Diagnosis: elevated 17-hydroxyprogesterone + salt-wasting crisis

21-alpha-hydroxylase deficiency

Salt-wasting = hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, dehydration

<p>21-alpha-hydroxylase deficiency </p><p>Salt-wasting = hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, dehydration</p>
49
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Diagnosis: Elevated DHEA + ambiguous genitalia

3-beta-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase deficiency

<p>3-beta-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase deficiency</p>
50
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Diagnosis: virilazation without affecting cortisol or aldosterone pathways

Aromatase deficiency

Due to lack of estrogen

<p>Aromatase deficiency</p><p>Due to lack of estrogen</p>
51
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Diagnosis: Elevated aldosterone + sexual infantilism + hypertension

17-alpha-hydroxylase deficiency

<p>17-alpha-hydroxylase deficiency</p>
52
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Diagnosis: Elevated deoxycortisol + virilization + hypertension + hypokalemia

11-beta-hydroxylase deficiency

<p>11-beta-hydroxylase deficiency</p>
53
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Bioavailable testosterone is made up of what

Free testosterone (2-3%) + testosterone weakly bound to albumin (33-50%)

54
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Testosterone circulates in the plasma bound to which protein with high affinity

Sex-hormone binding globulin (SHBG, 44-65%)

55
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Initial evaluation of suspected testosterone deficiency should be done by which test and methodology

Total testosterone by immunoassay

56
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Heroin metabolism pathway

Heroin > 6-MAM > morphine > hydromorphone

57
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Codeine metabolism pathways (3)

Codeine > morphine > hydromorphone

Codeine > hydrocodone > hydromorphone

Codeine > hydrocodone > dihydrocodeine

58
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Morphine metabolism pathway

Morphine > hydromorphone

59
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Oxycodone metabolism

Oxycodone > oxymorphone

60
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Diagnosis: Isolated AST elevation in a healthy patient with other normal liver tests (including CK, aldolase, LDH)

Macro-AST = AST forms complexes with Ig’s > delayed clearance and persistent AST elevation

Detect with electrophoresis, polyethylene glycol precipitation, gel filtration chromatography

61
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In acute myocardial injury, the cTn levels _____ (rise/fall or stay stable) over time whereas in chronic myocardial injury, the cTn levels ____ (rise/fall or stay stable) over time

Rise/fall; stay stable

62
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_____ (BNP/NT-proBNP) is degradable by neprilysin

BNP

63
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_____ (BNP/NT-proBNP) is the active form

BNP

64
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_____ (BNP/NT-proBNP) has the longer half-life and is more stable

NT-proBNP

65
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Commercial drug assays detect which benzodiazepine

Diazepam > nordiazepam (+temazepam)

66
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Purpose of the fetal fibronectin asssay

To assess the likelihood of preterm delivery; collected via cervical and vaginal secretions

67
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For each disease, determine if calcium and phosphate levels are increased, decreased, or unchanged

Vitamin D deficiency

Renal osteodystrophy

Paget’s disease

Vitamin D deficiency: decrease calcium, decrease phosphate

Renal osteodystrophy: decreased calcium, unchanged/increased phosphate

Paget’s disease: unchanged calcium and phosphate

68
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Blood specimen with high potassium, low calcium, and low alkaline phosphatase indicate what about specimen collection?

Specimen was collected into potassium-EDTA tube prior to transferring to heparinized tube (specimen has excess potassium and a chelator of divalent cations like Ca and Mg; Alk phos needs Mg as cofactor)

69
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3 major mechanism for hyperkalemia

Decreased aldosterone / aldosterone responsiveness

Reduced distal delivery of sodium

Renal failure

70
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Best laboratory tests to diagnose AL amyloidosis (4)

SPEP

Serum free light chain

Serum IFE

Urine IFE

71
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Best laboratory tests to diagnose monoclonal gammopathy (3)

SPEP

Serum free light chain

Serum IFE

72
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Plasma sodium becomes falsely _____ (low/high) with hyperproteinemia, hyperlipidemia

Plasma sodium becomes falsely _____ (low/high) with hypoproteinemia, hypolipidemia

Low - pseudoHYPOnatremia

High - pseudoHYPERnatremia

Due to indirect ion-selective electrode (ISE) measurement - measures electrolytes after dilution (assuming electrolytes confined to plasma water 93%, and plasma solids 7%)

73
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____ healthy individuals are needed to establish reference interval for a test

____ healthy individuals are needed to establish 95th percentile

300-500

120

74
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____-order kinetics: amount of drug metabolized is independent of parent drug concentration

____-order kinetics: amount of drug metabolized is dependent on parent drug concentration

Zero

First

75
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Drugs administered ____ (route) bypass absorption process

Intravenously

76
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Delayed processing of whole blood specimens causes a/an _____ (acidic/basic) environment

Exposure to air causes a/an _____ (acidic/basic) environment

Acidic

Basic

77
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An acidic (decreased pH) causes _____ (increased/decreased) ionized calcium

A basic (increased pH) causes _____ (increased/decreased) ionized calcium

Increased (H+ ions compete with calcium for albumin binding sites)

Decreased

Ionized calcium is inversely proportional to pH

78
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Which standardized bone turnover marker is used to assess response to anti-resorptive therapies (bisphosphonates/denosumab) in osteoporosis

C-terminal telopeptide of type 1 collagen (CTX)

Decrease > successful therapeutic response

79
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Which standardized bone turnover marker is used to assess response to anabolic therapies (teriparatide, abaloparatide) or formation phase (romosozumab) for osteoporosis

Procollagen type 1 N-terminal propeptide (P1NP)

80
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Which calculation is used to show statistically significant changes between test values obtained on 2 occasions

Reference change value (RCV)

81
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Which calculation is used to evaluate imprecision

% Coefficient of variation (%CV)

82
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Which calculation is a measurement of bias used to compare a laboratory’s mean with peer-group means

SD index (SDI)

83
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Which calculation is used to evaluate the clinical utility of a diagnostic test

Area under the curve (AUC) of receiver-operating characteristic (ROC) curve

84
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Which species of arsenic are toxic

Inorganic species - arsenic III, arsenic V, monomethylarsonic acid (MMA), dimethylarsinic acid (DMA)

85
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Symptoms of acute arsenic toxicity

GI distress

Cardiac arrhythmias

86
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Symptoms of chronic arsenic toxicity

Renal failure

Cardiac arrhythmias

Liver dysfunction

Peripheral neuropathy

87
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True or false: consumption of seafood can result in elevated urinary arsenic levels

True

88
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True or false: consumption of seafood can cause detectable arsenic-DMA and arsenic-MMA

True

89
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Which metabolite of oxycodone is more potent

Oxymorphone

90
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Iron overload (high/low): ____ iron, ____ ferritin, ____ TIBC, ____ transferrin saturation

High, high, low, high

91
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What are the two screening tests used for primary hyperaldosteronism

Aldosterone-to-renin ratio (ARR) and aldosterone-to-direct renin concentration ratio (PAC/DRC)

92
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What are 4 confirmatory tests for primary aldosteronism

Saline infusion test

Fludrocortisone suppression test

Oral sodium loading

Captopril challenge

93
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Confirmatory testing for primary aldosteronism is not required under these 3 circumstances

Spontaneous hypokalemia

Undetectable renin

PAC > 20 ng/dL

94
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Delta check failure definition

Difference between a patient’s current lab result and a previous result that exceeds a predefined limit within a set of time interval

95
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4 common causes of delta check failures

Mislabeling of the specimen

Pre-analytical contamination

Clerical errors

Possible analytical error

96
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Common causes of pseudohyperkalemia

Improper blood collection

Hemolysis

Thrombocytosis - platelets release K during coagulation causing increased serum K (Plt > 500K)

Leukocytosis - plasma K falsely elevated, serum K normal due to leukocyte lysis (WBC > 50K)

Hematologic malignancy

97
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Best initial test to investigate pheochromocytoma

Plasma and urine metanephrines

98
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____-based EGFR calculation should be used in patients with low muscle mass

Cystatin C

99
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Preeclampsia severe features

Thrombocytopenia (<100K)

Elevated LFTs (>2X ULN)

Elevated creatinine (>1.1)

Pulmonary edema

Persistent headache

Visual symptoms

100
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Elevated HVA (homovanillic acid) and VMA (vanillylmandelic acid) in child suggests

Neuroblastoma