Microscopic Examination of Urine – Lecture 1 & 2

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Flashcards cover specimen handling, microscopy techniques, stains, cellular elements, casts, crystals, artifacts, and introductory renal disease concepts from Lecture 1 & 2 on urine microscopic examination and renal disorders.

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59 Terms

1
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What specimen volume and centrifugation settings are recommended for routine urine sediment preparation?

Centrifuge 12 mL of urine at 400 RCF for 5 minutes.

2
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After centrifugation, how much sediment is placed on the glass slide and what size cover slip is used?

Transfer 20 µL (0.02 mL) of sediment to a slide and cover with a 22 × 22 mm cover slip.

3
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When should urine sediment be examined without centrifugation?

When less than 3 mL of urine is available.

4
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Which microscope objective is first used to detect casts in urine sediment?

The low-power objective (LPO, 10×).

5
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State the calculation used to convert revolutions per minute (RPM) to relative centrifugal force (RCF).

RCF = 1.118 × 10⁻⁵ × radius (cm) × RPM².

6
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What does the Addis count quantitatively measure and what is the required specimen?

Quantitates formed elements (RBCs, WBCs/ECs, hyaline casts) in a 12-hour urine specimen preserved with formalin.

7
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Give the normal Addis count values for RBCs, WBCs/ECs, and hyaline casts per 12-hour urine.

RBCs 0–5 000; WBCs/ECs ≤ 1 800 000; Hyaline casts ≤ 5 000.

8
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Which microscopy technique enhances visualization of low-refractive-index elements like casts and shows a 'halo'?

Phase-contrast microscopy.

9
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What is birefringence, and which microscopy technique detects it?

Birefringence is the ability to refract light in two directions at 90°; detected by polarizing microscopy.

10
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For what organism is dark-field microscopy routinely used in urinalysis labs?

Treponema pallidum (spirochetes).

11
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Name two interference-contrast microscopy types that give 3-D images.

Nomarski (differential interference) and Hoffman (modulation contrast).

12
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Which supravital stain is most commonly used for general urinary sediment and what does it accentuate?

Sternheimer-Malbin (crystal violet + safranin O); delineates cell nuclei and cytoplasm, highlights WBCs, epithelial cells, casts.

13
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What stain differentiates WBCs from RTE cells by enhancing nuclear detail?

Toluidine blue (supravital).

14
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Which stain lyses RBCs but leaves WBC nuclei intact, aiding RBC/WBC differentiation?

2 % acetic acid.

15
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Which lipid stains color triglycerides and neutral fats orange-red?

Oil Red O and Sudan III.

16
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What stain is used to detect urinary eosinophils?

Hansel stain (eosin Y + methylene blue).

17
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List the normal microscopic reference ranges for RBCs and WBCs in urine.

RBCs 0–2/HPF; WBCs 0–5 (or up to 0–8)/HPF.

18
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How do RBCs appear in hypertonic versus hypotonic urine?

Hypertonic: crenated/shrunken; Hypotonic: ghost cells (lysed).

19
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Describe 'dysmorphic' RBCs and their clinical implication.

RBCs with projections or fragmentation indicating glomerular membrane damage.

20
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What are 'glitter cells' and when do they appear?

Swollen neutrophils in hypotonic urine whose granules exhibit Brownian movement and sparkle.

21
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An eosinophil count >1 % of urinary WBCs is associated with which condition?

Acute interstitial nephritis (commonly drug-induced).

22
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Identify the epithelial cell type: largest, abundant irregular cytoplasm, prominent nucleus, originates from the vagina and lower urethra.

Squamous epithelial cell.

23
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What are 'clue cells' and what organism covers them?

Squamous epithelial cells coated with Gardnerella vaginalis; indicate bacterial vaginosis.

24
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Which epithelial cells line the renal pelvis to bladder, become elevated after catheterization, and may form syncytia?

Transitional (urothelial) epithelial cells.

25
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Which urinary epithelial cell type is most clinically significant and what does >2 cells/HPF indicate?

Renal tubular epithelial (RTE) cells; >2 RTE/HPF indicates tubular injury.

26
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Define an oval fat body and state two ways to confirm its identity.

An RTE cell containing lipid droplets; confirm with lipid stains (Oil Red O/Sudan III) or polarizing microscopy (Maltese cross cholesterol).

27
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Which bacteria group most commonly causes UTIs and what urinalysis correlates support bacterial infection?

Enterobacteriaceae (e.g., E. coli); correlate with positive nitrite, leukocyte esterase, alkaline pH, and WBCs.

28
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Presence of bacteria without WBCs in urine suggests what?

Specimen contamination or prolonged standing/unpreserved urine.

29
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Name the most common parasite seen in urine and its characteristic movement.

Trichomonas vaginalis; exhibits pear-shaped jerky motility.

30
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What microscopic finding is reported as 'threads' and is primarily composed of Tamm-Horsefall protein?

Mucus threads.

31
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How many microscopic fields are averaged when quantitating urinary elements?

Ten representative fields.

32
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Give the reporting scale words for non-numeric quantitation (e.g., epithelial cells per LPF).

'None, Rare, Few, Moderate, Many'.

33
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Define cylindruria.

Excretion of urinary casts.

34
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Where in the nephron are most casts formed and what protein forms their matrix?

Distal convoluted tubule and collecting ducts; Tamm-Horsefall (uromodulin) protein.

35
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List three conditions that promote cast formation (protein gelling).

Urine stasis (low flow), acidic pH, presence of Na⁺ and Ca²⁺ ions.

36
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Describe a hyaline cast and give one physiologic and one pathologic cause.

Colorless, translucent prototype cast; physiologic—strenuous exercise; pathologic—glomerulonephritis.

37
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Which urinary cast appears orange-red, is fragile, and indicates bleeding within the nephron?

RBC cast.

38
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What is the clinical significance of WBC casts?

Infection or inflammation within the nephron, especially pyelonephritis or acute interstitial nephritis.

39
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Why are pseudoleukocyte casts not reported as true casts?

They are merely clumps of leukocytes formed in the lower urinary tract, lacking a Tamm-Horsefall matrix.

40
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Granular casts originate from what source and what appearance distinguishes ‘fine’ granularity?

Lysosomal breakdown of RTE cells; fine granules give a sandpaper appearance.

41
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Which cast type contains fat droplets, correlates with nephrotic syndrome, and shows Maltese crosses under polarizing light?

Fatty cast.

42
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What characterizes a waxy cast and with what renal condition is it associated?

Highly refractile, ground-glass appearance with blunt or jagged ends; indicates chronic renal failure or severe urine stasis.

43
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Define a broad cast and explain its nickname.

A cast 2–6 × wider than typical, formed in dilated tubules; called 'renal failure cast'.

44
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Which cast is identified by Gram stain and signifies pyelonephritis?

Bacterial cast.

45
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What three urine factors influence crystal formation?

pH, solute concentration, and temperature.

46
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Which normal acid crystal produces a ‘brick-dust’ pink sediment macroscopically?

Amorphous urates.

47
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Describe the classic shape of uric acid crystals.

Rhombic/diamond or four-sided flat plates (‘whetstones’).

48
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What is the most common urinary crystal overall and what two shapes does it exhibit?

Calcium oxalate; dihydrate forms envelopes/pyramids, monohydrate forms ovals/dumbbells.

49
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Which normal alkaline crystal appears as 'coffin-lid' prisms?

Triple phosphate (magnesium ammonium phosphate, struvite).

50
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Name the abnormal acid crystal that is hexagonal, colorless, and diagnostic for an inherited amino-acid transport disorder.

Cystine crystal (seen in cystinuria/cystinosis).

51
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How can cholesterol crystals be distinguished from radiographic dye crystals?

Review patient imaging history and note very high specific gravity (>1.040) with radiographic media.

52
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Which paired amino-acid crystals indicate severe liver disease and describe their appearance.

Tyrosine: fine needles in sheaves/rosettes (yellow); Leucine: yellow-brown spheres with concentric rings and radial striations.

53
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Sulfonamide crystals are differentiated from calcium phosphate by what simple chemical test?

Calcium phosphate dissolves in dilute acetic acid; sulfonamides do not but give positive lignin and diazo tests.

54
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Name two drug-related crystals that form needle bundles after high-dose therapy or refrigeration.

Ampicillin and acyclovir crystals.

55
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What stain provides a positive Rous test for hemosiderin granules in urine?

Prussian blue stain.

56
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Which artifact shows a Maltese-cross appearance under polarizing light yet is not pathologic?

Starch granules (from gloves or powders).

57
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Identify four common urinary sediment artifacts that may mimic true elements.

Starch granules, oil droplets, air bubbles, pollen grains, and fibers/hair.

58
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Give two immune mechanisms that commonly underlie glomerular disorders.

Deposition of immune complexes (IgG, IgA) and complement-mediated damage to basement membrane/capillaries.

59
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List three non-immunologic causes of glomerular damage.

Chemical/toxin exposure, nephrotic syndrome, and deposition of amyloid or diabetic nephropathy.