ATPL

1. A DME is located at MSL.

An aircraft passing vertically above the station at flight level FL 360 will obtain a DME range of approximately:

6 NM

2. A VOR and DME are co-located.

You want to identify the DME by listening to the callsign. Having heard the same callsign 4 times in 30 seconds the:

B DME callsign is the one with the higher pitch that was broadcast only once

3. Given: Course Deviation Indicator (CDI) for a VOR is selected to 090°.

From/To indicator indicates "TO".

CDI needle is deflected halfway to the right.

On what radial is the aircraft?

275

4. The heading rose of an HSI is frozen on 200°. Lined up on the ILS of runway 25, the localizer needle will be:

centred

5. What is the maximum number of usable Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) transponder codes?

4096

6. What approximate rate of descent is required in order to maintain a 3° glide path at a groundspeed of 120 kt?

600 FT/MIN

7. What is the approximate angular coverage of reliable navigation information for a 3° ILS glide path out to a distance of 10 NM?

1.35° above the horizontal to 5.25° above the horizontal and 8° each side of the localiser centreline

8. What is the minimum number of satellites required by a GPS in order to obtain a three dimensional fix?

4

9. What is the minimum number of satellites required for a Satellite-Assisted Navigation System (GNSS/GPS) to carry out two dimensional operation?

3

10. Every 10 kt decrease in groundspeed, on a 3° ILS glidepath, will require an approximate:

decrease in the aircraft's rate of descent of 50 FT/MIN

11. The selection of code 2000 on an aircraft SSR transponder indicates:

entry into airspace from an area where SSR operation has not been required

12. Which one of the following Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) codes should be used by aircraft entering airspace from an area where SSR operation has not

been required?

2000

13. The selection of code 7500 on an aircraft SSR transponder indicates:

unlawful interference with the planned operation of the flight

14. The ATC transponder system,excluding Mode S, contains :

two modes, each of 4096 codes

15. Which of the following will give the most accurate calculation of aircraft ground speed?

A DME station sited on the flight route

16. When Mode C is selected on the aircraft SSR transponder the additional information transmitted is:

flight level based on 1013.25hpa

17. Which of the following will give the most accurate calculation of aircraft ground speed?

A DME station sited on the flight route

18. When an aircraft is operating its Secondary Surveillance Radar in Mode C an air traffic controller's presentation gives information regarding the aircraft's indicated flight level that is accurate to within:

+ or - 50 FT

19. Every 10 kt decrease in groundspeed, on a 3° ILS glidepath, will require an approximate:

decrease in the aircraft's rate of descent of 50 FT/MIN

20. Which of the following changes of state is known as sublimation?

Solid direct to vapour

21. The relative humidity of a sample air mass is 50%. How is the relative humidity of this air mass influenced by changes of the amount of water vapour in it?

It increases with increasing water vapour

22. Relative humidity

changes when water vapour is added, even though the temperature remains constant

23. What does dewpoint mean?

The temperature to which a mass of air must be cooled in order to reach saturation

24. Which of the following is the definition of relative humidity ?

Ratio between the actual mixing ratio and the saturation mixing ratio X 100

25. Relative humidity

increases if the air is cooled whilst maintaining the vapour pressure constant

26. During the climb after take-off, the altimeter setting is adjusted at the transition altitude. If the local QNH is 1023 hPa, what will happen to the altimeter reading during the resetting procedure ?

It will decrease

27. You are flying at FL 130, and your true altitude is 12000 FT. What is the temperature deviation from that of the standard atmosphere at FL 130 (QNH 1013,2 hPa) ?

ISA -20°C

28. The lowest assumed temperature in the International Standard Atmosphere (ISA) is

-56.5°C

29. Fallstreaks or virga are

water or ice particles falling out of a cloud that evaporate before reaching the ground

30. The presence of altocumulus lenticularis is an indication of the

presence of mountain waves

31. The QNH is equal to the QFE if

the elevation = 0

32. If you are flying at FL 120 and the outside temperature is -2°C, at what altitude will the "freezing level" be?

FL 110

33. The wind direction in a METAR is measured relative to

true north

34. If CAVOK is reported then

no low drifting snow is present

35. What is the boundary layer between troposphere and stratosphere called?

Tropopause

36. Which one of the following statements applies to the tropopause?

It separates the troposphere from the stratosphere

37. How are high level condensation trails formed that are to be found occasionally behind jet aircraft ?

Through water vapour released during fuel combustion

38. Which of the following types of clouds are evidence of unstable air conditions?

CU, CB

39. The environmental lapse rate in an actual atmosphere

varies with time

40. Which of the following meteorological phenomena can rapidly change the braking action of a runway?

+FZRA

41. How long from the time of observation is a TREND in a METAR valid?

2 hours.

42. In the TAF for Dehli, during the summer, for the time of your landing you note: TEMPO TS. What is the maximum time this deterioration in weather can last in anyone instance ?

60 minutes

43. Refer to the following TAF extract:

BECMG 1821 2000 BKN004 PROB30 BECMG 2124 0500 FG VV001

What does the abbreviation "VV001" mean?

Vertical visibility 100 FT

44. Refer to the following TAF extract:

BECMG 1821 2000 BKN004 PROB30 BECMG 2124 0500 FG VV001

What visibility is forecast for 2400 UTC?

500 m

45. Refer to the following TAF extract:

BECMG 1821 2000 BKN004 PROB30 BECMG 2124 0500 FG VV001

What does the abbreviation "BKN004" mean?

5 - 7 oktas, ceiling 400 FT

46. What does the term SIGMET signify?

A SIGMET is a warning of dangerous meteorological conditions

47. In which of the following circumstances is a SIGMET issued ?

Marked mountain waves

48. Which of the following weather reports is a warning of conditions that could be potentially hazardous to aircraft in flight ?

SIGMET

49. Refer to TAF below.

EGBB 261812 28015G25KT 9999 SCT025 TEMPO 1822 29018G35KT 5000 SHRASN BKN010CB PROB30 TEMPO 1821 1500 TSGR BKN008CB BECMG 2124 26010KT From the TAF above you can assume that visibility at 2055Z in Birmingham (EGBB) will be :

not less than 1,5 km but could be in excess of 10 km

50. What does the expression "Broken (BKN)" mean?

5-7 Eights of the sky is cloud covered

51. During the life cycle of a thunderstorm, which stage is characterized predominantly by downdrafts?

Dissipating stage

52. How long does a typical microburst last?

1 to 5 minutes

53. What is the approximate maximum diameter of a microburst ?

4KM

54. The diameter and the life time of a typical microburst are in the order of :

4 km and 1-5 minutes

55. Altostratus clouds are classified as

medium level clouds

56. How does freezing rain develop?

Rain falls through a layer where temperatures are below 0°C

57. Freezing rain occurs when

rain falls into a layer of air with temperatures below 0°C

58. Supercooled droplets are always

at a temperature below freezing