t Bacteria that become resistant to first-line 3-lactam drugs, do so by which mechanism of resistance?

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inactivation of antibiotics

Last updated 1:55 AM on 9/3/26
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94 Terms

1
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(SELECT ALL THAT APPLY) Which of the following antibiotic categories inhibit protein synthesis?

Macrolides, aminoglycosides, lincosamides

2
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Which of the following antibiotic categories inhibit peptidoglycan crosslinking?

B lactams

3
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What is the Minimum Lethal Concentration (MLC) for the following broth dilution assay?

PIC need more info. Not enough provided

4
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What is the Minimum Inhibitory Concentration (MIC) for the following broth dilution assay?PIC 1
5
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The plated organism has greatest resistance to which of the labeled discs?PIC. D
6
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Which principle of antibiotics states that they should have greater harm to microbes than to humans?

selective toxicity

7
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These chemical disinfectants disrupt membranes and can be used as antiseptics or mouthrinses.

Bisguanides

8
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This level of disinfectant is registered for use on inanimate objects in hospitals and has potency against HIV and HBV.\

Low level disinfectant

9
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Non-enveloped viruses are MORE RESISTANT to disinfection compared to enveloped viruses.

TRUE

10
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The use of chemicals to reduce bacteria on inanimate surfaces to levels considered safe for public health.

Sanitization

11
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What is used as a biological monitor for proper sterilization.

spores

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Which of the following are the settings for sterilization via gravity displacement autoclave?

121 c, 15 psi, 15 mins

13
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Which of the following is NOT considered a method to achieve sterilization?

Pasturization

14
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What is the process of removing or killing most microorganisms on or in a material?

Disinfection

15
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What is the name of inanimate objects that can be involved in indirect contact transmission of infectious diseases?

Fomites

16
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Which type of media restricts growth of some bacteria, but allows growth of others?

Selective media

17
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Which type of bacteria are capable of growth and reproduction in low temperatures?

Psychrophiles

18
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Which of the following is the bacterial growth phase where the population is actively doubling?

Exponential log

19
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What is the name of an outer covering of bacteria (usually polysaccharide) that protects the bacteria from phagocytosis?

Capsule

20
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What is the most likely outcome of exposure to a pathogen based on the Iceberg concept?

Exposure without infection

21
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Which type of organism has a thick layer of peptidoglycan?

Gram positive bacterium

22
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Gram-positive bacterium has 2 lipid bilayer membranes.

FALSE

23
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Which type of microbe has endotoxin?

Gram Neg

24
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An infection that occurs more often or is more severe in people with weakened immune systems is call a(an):

opportunistic infection

25
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microbe capable of causing disease is called:

pathogen

26
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Which type of microbe is ALWAYS an obligate intracellular parasite?

Viruses

27
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A _____ is defined as a microbe that is capable of causing host damage.

Pathogen

28
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___are small, extrachromosomal DNAs that code for nonessential, but important, information including antibiotic resistance genes and virulence factors.

Plasmids

29
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Bacterial growth map
30
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___are used as a biological monitor to ensure that sterilization has occurred.

Spore

31
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___ radiation, like UV light, has low penetrating power, but can approach sterilization with long enough exposure times.

Nonionizing

32
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____an inanimate object (e.g. doorknob) that may be involved in indirect.

Formite

33
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___media allows for distinction between two bacteria without altering their growth rate.

Differential

34
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____is the polymer that makes up the bacterial cell wall.

Peptidoglycan

35
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___is used to sterilize heat sensitive liquids and disinfect air in hospital isolation units and industrial clean rooms through physical removal of microbes.

Filtratio

36
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Fungi are ____ organisms that contain____ in their cell wall.

Eukaryotic, chitin

37
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Which type of bacteria have an inner and outer membrane?

Only Gram-negative bacteria

38
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____occurs when the healthy microbiome shifts to an abnormal microbiome and often results in developmental disease.

Dysbiosis

39
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____clusters of microorganisms that stick to surfaces.

Biofilms

40
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____is the collection of genomes from all the microorganisms in a defined environment.

Microbiome

41
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____the process of removing or killing most microorganisms on or in a material.

Disinfection

42
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___philes include most of the medically important bacteria because they grow best at physiological temperature (37 C).

Meso

43
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Bacteria in a biofilm are ____resistant to antibiotics than bacteria that are in their planktonic form.

MORE

44
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To achieve a countable number of colonies on a plate from a concentrated sample/bacterial culture, we must perform a series of ___ dilutions.

1:10

45
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Settings for a gravity displacement autoclave for sterilization are: degrees Celsius, psi, time.

121 C, 15psi, 15 mins

46
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a term that means able to cause disease.

Pathogen

47
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_are generally considered low-level disinfectants. However, if you combine them with alcohol, they become tuberculocidal and virucidal against enveloped viruses, but are not sporicidal. .

quats

48
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infection is one that is limited to a small area of the body. .

localized

49
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Which of the following is LESS LIKELY to remain infectious after passing through the low pH of the stomach?

Enveloped viruses

50
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are highly toxic disinfectants that have broad spectrum activity. They are tuberculocidal, but are not sporicidal. They function by disrupting cell walls, membranes, and precipitating proteins. After use, they have residual biocidal activity but film can accumulate on surfaces.

Phenolic

51
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the capacity of a pathogen to cause disease in a host.

Virulence

52
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Polypeptide antibiotics, like polymyxin B and bactitracin, function by inserting into and disrupting bacterial _.

Membrane

53
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is a sterilant gas that has a high capacity for penetration and is suitable for materials that cannot be exposed to moisture or heat.

ethylene oxide

54
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the time between exposure of a host to a pathogen and the onset of signs and symptoms.

Incubation period

55
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disinfectants have efficacy demonstrated against Salmonella enterica, Staphylococcus.

Hospital

56
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disinfectants are registered as hospital disinfectants with additional potency against HIV and HBV.

Low level.

57
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-is a halogen antimicrobial that oxidizes and denatures proteins and can be used as a topical antiseptic.

chlorine

58
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Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus is primarily resistant to methicillin via production of an efflux pump to excretes the antibiotic from its cytoplasm.

false

59
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_means bacteria "in the blood".

Bacteremia

60
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are used as biological monitors of autoclave sterilization efficacy.

Spores

61
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Ciprofloxacin is a ——antibiotic that targets DNA gyrase and thus inhibiting DNA replication in bacteria.

Fluoroquinolones

62
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Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) is primarily resistant to methicillin via spontaneous mutation of penicillin-binding proteins, leading to a change in the target binding site of the antibiotic.

False

63
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_disinfectants inactivate vegetative bacteria, mycobacteria, fungi, all viruses, and spores.

High level disinfectant.

64
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_are a group of chemical disinfectants that disrupt membranes and can be used as antiseptic and mouthwashes.

Bisguanides

65
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enzymes that bacteria like Staphylococcus aureus make that cleave and inactivate first line penicillin drugs.

B lactamases

66
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infection that is acquired during a hospital stay or an infection that occurs in a hospital is referred to as a _ infection.

Nosocomial

67
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Which of the following is usually MORE RESISTANT to disinfection?

Non enveloped.

68
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Which of the following can have activity against non-enveloped viruses like Adenovirus or Norovirus?

Ethyl alcohol

69
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% is the best microbicidal concentration of alcohols.

70

70
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disinfectants are registered as hospital disinfectants with potency against HIV, HBV and Mycobacterium tuberculosis, but are not effective against bacterial spores.

Intermediate

71
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Which of the following is has an outermost covering that is made primarily of lipids? .

Enveloped

72
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_are organic substances that can sterilize by crosslinking protein molecules and disrupting enzymes. Some are capable of killing spores but it takes at least 10 hours of contact.

Aldehyde

73
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Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus is primarily resistant to methicillin via production of an enzyme that cleaves and inactivates methicillin.

False

74
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infection is one that is normally present only in animals but may be spread to humans or may readily be exchanged between the two. .

Zoonotic

75
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Trimethoprim is an antibiotic that inhibits the synthesis of.

Folic acid.

76
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Beta-lactam antibiotics have a Beta-lactam ring structure that binds to beta lactase inhibitors their ability to crosslink peptidoglycan.????
77
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pathogen is one that does not normally cause disease in a healthy host, but can cause disease when normal functions are compromised.

Opportunistic

78
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low level disinfectant

Quants

79
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intermediate level disinfectant

quant-alchols,

alcohols

iodophors

80
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high level disinfectant

gluteraldeyhde,

peracidic acid

ethylene oxide

81
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phenolics levels

low-intermediate

82
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hydrogen peroxide levels

low-high

83
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chlorine compound levels

intermediate to high

84
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disrupt cytoplasmic membrane

bisguanides,

quants

85
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disrupt proteins

halogens, and peroxygen

86
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disrupt DNA

ethylene oxide

87
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dsirupt cytoplasmic membrane AND proteins

phenolics and alcohols

88
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disrupt proteins AND dna

aldehydes

89
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inhibitions of cell wall synthesis

pencillins, cephalosporins, carbapenems

90
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inhibitions of nucleic acids (RNA)

rifampin

91
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inhibition of protein sythesis

chloramphenicol,

tetracyclins,

macrolides (erthromycin)

Lincosamides (clindamycin)

aminoglycosides

92
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inhibition of nucleic aicd (DNA)

fluoroquinolones,

methronidazole

93
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inhibits cytoplasmic membrane

Polymixcin B,

bacitracin

94
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competitive inhibition

trimethoprim (folic acid)