Ground School 9 - Navigation: Charts and Publications

(Refer to Area 3.) Determine the approximate latitude and longitude of Shoshone County Airport.

47°33'N – 116°11'W.

Which statement about longitude and latitude is true?

Lines of longitude cross the Equator at right angles.

(Refer to Area 2.) What is the approximate latitude and longitude of Cooperstown Airport?

47°25'N – 98°06'W.

Which airport is located at approximately 47° 41 minutes 00 seconds N latitude and 101° 36 minutes 00 seconds W longitude?

Fischer.

(Refer to Area 2.) Which airport is located at approximately 47°34'30"N latitude and 100°43'00"W longitude?

Makeeff.

(Refer to Area 3.) Which airport is located at approximately 47°21'N latitude and 101°01'W longitude?

Washburn.

At Sioux Gateway/Col Day (N42°24.16' W96°23.06'), which frequency should be used as a Common Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF) to self-announce position and intentions when the control tower is closed?

118.7 MHz.

(Refer to Area 3.) Determine the approximate latitude and longitude of Currituck County Airport.

36°24'N – 76°01'W.

(Refer to Area 1.) The NALF Fentress (NFE) Airport is in what type of airspace?

Class E.

(Refer to Area 4.) What hazards to aircraft may exist in restricted areas such as R-5302A?

Unusual, often invisible, hazards such as aerial gunnery or guided missiles.

(Refer to Area 1.) What minimum radio equipment is required to land and take off at Norfolk International?

Mode C transponder and two-way radio.

(Refer to Area 2.) The elevation of the Chesapeake Regional Airport is

19 feet.

Which is true concerning the blue and magenta colors used to depict airports on Sectional Aeronautical Charts?

Airports with control towers underlying Class B, C, D, and E airspace are shown in blue.

With certain exceptions, Class E airspace extends upward from either 700 feet or 1,200 feet AGL to, but does not include,

18,000 feet MSL.

Pilots flying over a national wildlife refuge are requested to fly no lower than

2,000 feet AGL.

The terrain elevation of the light tan (light colored) area between Minot (Area 1) and Audubon Lake (Area 2) varies from

2,000 feet to 2,500 feet MSL.

(Refer to Area 3.) What type military flight operations should a pilot expect along IR 644?

IFR training flights above 1,500 feet AGL at speeds in excess of 250 knots.

What action should a pilot take when operating under VFR in a Military Operations Area (MOA)?

Exercise extreme caution when military activity is being conducted.

Flight through a restricted area should not be accomplished unless the pilot has

received prior authorization from the controlling agency.

What must a pilot do or be aware of when transitioning an Alert Area?

Be aware that the area may contain unusual aeronautical activity or high volume of pilot training.

(Refer to Area 1.) The visibility and cloud clearance requirements to operate VFR during daylight hours over Sandpoint Airport at 1,200 feet AGL are

3 miles and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from each cloud.

(Refer to Area 3.) The vertical limits of that portion of Class E airspace designated as a Federal Airway over Magee Airport are

1,200 feet AGL to 17,999 feet MSL.

(Refer to Area 1.) For information about the parachute jumping at Caddo Mills Airport, refer to

the Airport/Facility Directory section of the Chart Supplement.

Information concerning parachute jumping sites may be found in the

Chart Supplement.

(Refer to Area 1.) What minimum altitude is necessary to vertically clear the obstacle on the northeast side of Airpark East Airport by 500 feet?

1,273 feet MSL.

(Refer to Area 2.) What minimum altitude is necessary to vertically clear the obstacle on the southeast side of Winnsboro Airport by 500 feet?

1,403 feet MSL.

What is the base of Class B airspace at Lakeview (30F) Airport (Area 2)?

3,000

(Refer to Area 4.) The airspace directly overlying Fort Worth Meacham is

Class D airspace to 3,200 feet MSL.

At which airports is fixed-wing Special VFR not authorized?

Dallas-Fort Worth International and Dallas Love Field.

(Refer to Area 3.) The floor of Class B airspace at Dallas Executive Airport is

3,000 feet MSL.

(Refer to Area 7.) The airspace overlying Mc Kinney (TKI) is controlled from the surface to

2,900 feet MSL.

(Refer to Area 8.) What minimum altitude is required to fly over the Cedar Hill TV towers in the congested area southwest of Dallas Executive?

3,549 feet MSL.

(Refer to Area 4.) The floor of Class B airspace overlying Hicks Airport (T67) north-northwest of Fort Worth Meacham Field is

4,000 feet MSL.

(Refer to Area 5.) The navigation facility at Dallas-Ft. Worth International (DFW) is a

VOR/DME.

The Devils Lake East MOA (Area 1) is a

military operations area.

(Refer to Area 2.) What hazards to aircraft may exist in areas such as Devils Lake East MOA?

Military training activities that necessitate acrobatic or abrupt flight maneuvers.

(Refer to Area 2.) Identify the airspace over Bryn Airport.

Class G airspace -- surface up to but not including 1,200 feet AGL; Class E airspace -- 1,200 feet AGL up to but not including 18,000 feet MSL.

(Refer to Area 2.) The visibility and cloud clearance requirements to operate VFR during daylight hours over the town of Cooperstown between 1,200 feet AGL and 10,000 feet MSL are

3 miles and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from clouds.

(Refer to Area 3.) Identify the airspace over Sprague Airport.

Class G airspace -- surface up to but not including 1,200 feet AGL; Class E airspace - 1,200 feet AGL up to but not including 18,000 feet MSL.

(Refer to Area 3.) When flying over Arrowwood National Wildlife Refuge, a pilot should fly no lower than

2,000 feet AGL.

(Refer to east of Area 5.) The airspace overlying and within 5 miles of Barnes County Airport is

Class G airspace from the surface to 700 feet AGL.

(Refer to Area 2.) What kind of airport is Deshler (6D7)?

A public airport with a runway that is not a hard surface.

(Refer to Area 3.) What is the airspace classification around Findlay (FDY) airport?

E.

The controlled airspace located at the Corpus Christi VORTAC (Area 5) begins at

700 feet AGL.

When are two-way radio communications required on a flight from Bishop Airport (Area 4) to McCampbell Airport (Area 1) at an altitude of 2,000 feet MSL?

Entering the Corpus Christi Class C airspace.

When are two-way radio communications required on a flight from Gnoss Airport (DVO) (Area 4) to Livermore Airport (LVK) (Area 5) at an altitude of 3,500 ft. MSL? When entering

the Livermore Airport Class D airspace.

An aircraft takes off from Gnoss Airport (Area 4) and flies southeast 25.4 NM to Buchanan Airport. What maximum elevation figure would assure obstruction clearance during the flight?

3,200 feet MSL.

(Refer to Area 1.) Dubey Airport is a

privately owned airport restricted to use.

(Refer to Area 6.) Sky Way Airport is a

nonpublic-use airport.

(Refer to Area 6.) The Class C airspace at Metropolitan Oakland International (OAK) which extends from the surface upward has a ceiling of

both 2,100 feet and 3,000 feet MSL.

(Refer to Area 1.) What minimum altitude is required to avoid the Livermore Airport (LVK) Class D airspace?

2,901 feet MSL.

The airspace surrounding the Gila Bend AF AUX Airport (GXF) (Area 6) is classified as Class

D.

What is the dotted outlined area northeast of Gila Bend Airport, near Area 3?

Wilderness area.

A blue segmented circle on a Sectional Chart depicts which class airspace?

Class D.

Under what condition, if any, may pilots fly through a restricted area?

With the controlling agency’s authorization.

What are the basic VFR weather minima required to takeoff from the Onawa, IA (K36) airport during the day?

1 statute mile, clear of clouds.

57) (Refer to Area 3.) For information about glider operations at Ridgeland Airport, refer to

the Chart Supplement.

(Refer to Area 3.) What is the height of the lighted obstacle approximately 6 nautical miles southwest of Savannah International?

1,548 feet MSL.

(Refer to Area 3.) What is the floor of the Savannah Class C airspace at the shelf area (outer circle)?

1,300 feet MSL.

(Refer to Area 3.) The top of the group obstruction approximately 11 nautical miles from the Savannah VORTAC on the 010° radial is

454 feet MSL.

The flag symbols at Statesboro Bulloch County Airport, Claxton-Evans County Airport, and Ridgeland Airport are

visual checkpoints to identify position for initial callup prior to entering Savannah Class C airspace.

(Refer to Area 5.) The CAUTION box denotes what hazard to aircraft?

Unmarked balloon on cable to 3,008 feet MSL.

(Refer to Area 2.) The flag symbol at Lake Drummond represents

visual checkpoint used to identify position for initial callup to Norfolk Approach Control.

Which public use airport depicted is indicated as having fuel?

Minot Int’l (Area 1).

Which public use airports depicted are indicated as having fuel?

Rockwall (Area 1) and Sulphur Springs (Area 5).

As standard operating practice, all inbound traffic to an airport without a control tower should continuously monitor the appropriate facility from a distance of

10 miles.

(Refer to Area 3.) If Dallas Executive Tower is not in operation, which frequency should be used as a Common Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF) to monitor airport traffic?

127.25 MHz.

(Refer to Area 2.) The control tower frequency for Addison Airport is

126.0 MHz.

(Refer to Area 2.) What is the recommended communication procedure when inbound to land at Cooperstown Airport?

Broadcast intentions when 10 miles out on the CTAF/MULTICOM frequency, 122.9 MHz.

(Refer to Area 4.) The CTAF/UNICOM frequency at Jamestown Airport is

123.0 MHz.

(Refer to Area 5.) What is the CTAF/UNICOM frequency at Barnes County Airport?

122.8 MHz.

(Refer to Area 3.) What is the recommended communications procedure for departure at Currituck County Airport?

Broadcast intentions prior to taxi and announcing runway of departure.

(Refer to Area 3.) What is the recommended communications procedure for a landing at Currituck County Airport?

Transmit intentions on 122.9 MHz when 10 miles out and give position reports in the traffic pattern.

At Coeur D’Alene, which frequency should be used as a Common Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF) to self-announce position and intentions?

122.8 MHz.

(Refer to Area 2 in Figure 22.) At Coeur D’Alene, which frequency should be used as a Common Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF) to monitor airport traffic?

122.8 MHz.

(Refer to Area 2 in Figure 22.) What is the correct UNICOM frequency to be used at Coeur D’Alene to request fuel?

122.8 MHz.

(Refer to Area 2.) The CTAF/MULTICOM frequency for Garrison Airport is

122.9 MHz.

Weather information is available for the Coeur d’Alene (COE) Airport (Area 2)

from AWOS 3 135.075.

FAA advisory circulars are available to all pilots and are obtained by

downloading them from the FAA website.

FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter specifically related to Air Traffic and General Operating Rules are issued under which subject number?

90

FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter specifically related to Airmen are issued under which subject number?

60

FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter specifically related to Airspace are issued under which subject number?

70

According to the Chart Supplement, what times can a pilot obtain fuel and services in September at Toledo Express (TOL) Airport?

0800 – 0000 hr. local time

When approaching Lincoln Municipal from the west at noon for the purpose of landing, initial communications should be with

Lincoln Approach Control on 124.0 MHz.

Traffic patterns in effect at Lincoln Municipal are

to the left on Runway 14 and Runway 32; to the right on Runway 18 and Runway 35.

Which type radar service is provided to VFR aircraft at Lincoln Municipal?

Sequencing to the primary Class C airport, traffic advisories, conflict resolution, and safety alerts.

What is the recommended communications procedure for landing at Lincoln Municipal during the hours when the tower is not in operation?

Monitor airport traffic and announce your position and intentions on 118.5 MHz.

Where is Loup City Municipal located with relation to the city?

Northwest approximately 1 mile.

Refer to Crawford Airport (N38°42.25' W107°38.62'). Is fuel ever available at Crawford Airport?

Yes, 100LL fuel is available for emergency use only.

Refer to Crawford Airport (N38°42.25' W107°38.62'). What is the traffic pattern for Runway 25?

Right hand traffic pattern.

The acronym for a computerized command response system that provides automated weather, radio check capability, and airport advisory information selected from an automated menu by microphone clicks is

AUNICOM.

What depicts a Class E airspace that begins at 700 feet AGL?

A magenta vignette around an airport.

If the SSV Class of VORTAC is listed as a Terminal Class, the altitudes and distance to adequately receive the signal of the VORTAC is

1,000 feet to 12,000 feet and 25 NM.

According to the Chart Supplement, what are the operational requirements of a VORTAC?

Collocated VOR and TACAN navigational facilities.

You are preflight planning in the morning before an afternoon flight. Where would you find information regarding an “Airport surface hot spot?”

In the Chart Supplements U.S.

To avoid landing at the wrong airport or runway, pilots should

consult airport diagrams and Chart Supplements.

When information is disseminated about a taxiway closure, it will be located in

NOTAM (D) distribution.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?

To advise of changes in flight data which affect instrument approach procedures (IAP), aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior to normal publication.

Which sources of aeronautical information, when used collectively, provide the latest status of airport conditions (e.g., runway closures, runway lighting, snow conditions)?

Chart Supplement and (D) NOTAMs.