HESI Dental Hygiene Exam

Under which classification of gingival diseases and conditions is puberty-associated gingivitis found?

Plaque-Induced Gingival diseases modified by systemic factors

A patient presents with a short, thick lingual frenum that results in limited tongue movement affecting speech. Which is the most likely diagnosis of this condition?

Ankyloglossia

When is tooth eruption complete?

Tooth has made contact with its antagonists in opposing jaw

When does mixed dentition begin?

Eruption of first permanent tooth

How many succedaneous teeth are in permanent dentition?

20

The junction of a buccal and lingual triangular ridge is a transverse ridge. The oblique ridge of a maxillary molar is an example of a transverse ridge.

The first statement is true and the second is false

Which factor makes aging enamel less susceptible to caries?

reduced permeability

Which groove is the most identifying characteristic of a three-cusp mandibular second premolar?

Distolingual

Which is true regarding the height of contour?

Greatest elevation of tooth either incisocervically or occlusocervically

How many primary and permanent teeth are typically present in an eight yr old child?

14 primary; 10 permanent

Which describes the junction of two surfaces of a crown?

line angle

Which G.V. Black classification involves the proximal surfaces of anterior teeth including the incised edge or angle?

IV

Which ridge is a unique characteristic of permanent maxillary molars?

Oblique

Which division of the fifth cranial nerve innervates the temporomandibular joint?

Mandibular

Facial paralysis can result from damage to the motor neurons of which cranial nerve?

VII

Which is the target area for the inferior alveolar nerve block?

mandibular foramen on medial surface of mandible

Which salivary gland is encapsulated?

Sublingual

Which type of joint is the temporomandibular?

Synovial

Which peripheral nervous system and subdivision are responsible for a shutdown of salivary gland secretion?

autonomic; sympathetic

Destroyed enamel cannot reform since the cells that formed it no longer exist. Cavitated enamel can repair itself by the incorporation of calcium and phosphate ions from saliva?

First statement is true second statement is false

Which bacterium is most important in causing the progression of carious lesions?

Aciduric

Anaerobe bacteria

grow only in the absence of oxygen

Which bacterial structure interferes with phagocytosis?

capsule

Which bacteria grow best in refrigerated conditions?

Psychrophils

Endotoxin is a virulence property of

gram-negative bacteria

When comparing viruses to bacteria, viruses

enter host cells before they can multiply

Which is treated with nystatin?

Candidiasis

Which is detected in the blood within two months after successful immunization with the hepatitis B vaccine?

Anti-HBs

Which hypersensitivity reaction is an allergy to the natural rubber latex in examination gloves?

I

Which bacterial genus contains species that cause pneumatic fever, scarlet fever, and pharyngitis?

Streptococcus

Each of the following is an antituberculin agent EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION?

A. Ethambutol

B. Isoniazid

C. Nizoral

D. Rifampin

C. Nizoral

Which condition warrants antibiotic premedication?

Repaired congenital heart disease

It is noted the medical history the patient has mitral valve prolapse, a stent, pneumatic heart disease, and a renal dialysis shunt. For which condition does the patient require antibiotic predication?

Renal dialysis shunt

A patient's prescription has the abbreviation "qid" meaning?

take medication four times a day

Which schedule of controlled substance is indicated when a prescription states "NO REFILLS"

schedule II controlled substance

Which vitamin deficiency results from long-term recreational abuse of nitrous oxide?

Cobalamin (vitamin B-12)

Each of the following is a calcium blocking agent EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

Propranolol (adrenergic blocking agent which reduces high blood pressure)

Which food is a good source of vitamin K?

Kale!

;milk is an excellent source of calcium; strawberries & sweet potatoes are rich in vitamin c

Which medication is administered to manage an acute asthma attack?

Albuterol

short acting bronchodilator results in an immediate response to an acute asthma attack

Lipitor is a/an

statin

(lowers cholesterol levels)

Consuming foods high in retinol will help prevent night blindness because vitamin D helps absorb calcium.

Both the statement and reason are correct but not related.

Consuming foods high in retinol will help prevent night blindness. Vitamin D DOES help absorb calcium.

Which meal lacks an excellent source of vitamin C?

Steak, brown rice, and corn

Although corn has some vitamin C, it is not an excellent source as provided from broccoli, strawberries, and cantaloupe

Which element is found in proteins and not carbohydrates?

Iron

Nitrogen is found in protein, but not carbohydrates. Iron is not an element found in either nutrient. Carbon and oxygen are found in carbohydrates and proteins.

Some vitamin K requirements are met through the synthesis of

intestinal bacteria

Which vitamin is associated with the deficiency beriberi?

Thiamin

Which is primarily responsible for pharmacologic metabolism?

Liver

Which procedure establishes the most definitive diagnosis for oral cancer?

Scalpel biopsy

A 17 yr old presents for a third molar evaluation. The panoramic radiograph reveals the apical thirst of roots #1 & #2 have fused together. Which best defines this anomaly?

Concrescence

Concrescence is the fusion of 2 individually developed teeth with cementum only. Gemination occurs when a single tooth bud forms tow joined teeth.

A patient's intramural examination reveals a well-circumscribed, raised lesion along the lateral border of the tongue. The lesion is soft, deep purple and measures 2mm diameter. The patient believes it first appeared after accidentally biting the tongue. Which best defines the lesion?

Hemangioma

Intraoral lesions may occur with each of the following condition EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

Basal cell carcinoma

Basal cell carcinoma is a skin tumor often found the face or lips, not the oral cavity.

Which infectious disease is NOT caused by the coxsackievirus?

Verruca vulgaris

Verruca vulgaris is an oral wart caused by the human papilloma virus (HPV)

In which region does an early symptom of measles appear?

Buccal mucosa

A pregnant woman reports a freely moveable, deep red tissue mass, which extends from the labial gingival between maxillary right premolars. The surface of the lesion is ulcerated and bleeds easily. A histologic analysis indicates the lesion is composed of connective tissue, capillaries, and inflammatory cells. Which best defines the lesion?

Pyogenic granuloma

A patient's buccal mucosa exhibits tiny white nodules connected by slender raised lines in a lace-like pattern. This finding is a clinical manifestation of

lichen plants

The parents of a 7 yr old are concerned by the development a soft, blue, vesicle-like swelling on the gingiva where tooth #8 is expected to erupt. No significant radiographic findings exist other than the partial eruption of tooth #8. Which course of action is recommended?

No treatment is required; the cyst will dissipate naturally.

Which best describes the etiology of pemphigus vulgaris?

Autoimmune response

The most common tumor of the salivary glands is ranula. A ranula is clinically found on the floor of the mouth.

The first statement is false, the second is true.

During pregnancy, when do most embryonic cleft malformations occur?

First trimester

Where is chronic atrophic candidiasis most likely found?

Palate

Which description best explains the phenomenon of referred pain?

Convergence of sensory nerve impulses

Which results will ensue if a kilovolt peak (kVp) below 65 is used when exposing radiographs?

Exposure to radiation is increased

Each of the following compounds is used to fluoridate domestic water systems EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

A. Acidulated phosphate

B. Hydrofluorosilicic acid

C. Sodium fluoride

D. Sodium silicofluoride

Acidulated phosphate

Acidulated phosphate is an in-office, professional topical fluoride.

Most dental sealants places are self cured because this process allows for a longer working time for the operator.

NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct.

Each of the following patients would benefit from prescription fluoride supplements EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

33 yr old female in her second trimester of pregnancy who drinks unfluoridated water.

In addition to bleeding, which other characteristic best describes a mild case of gingivitis?

Areas of pseudopocketing

Each of the following are true concerning professionally applied topical fluoride in a tray EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

Ask patient to rinse thoroughly following the application to prevent ingestion.

Which most effectively identifies plaque biofilm on tooth surfaces?

Disclosing agent

Mobility is a risk factor for periodontal disease progression. Mobility is measures using bidigital evaluation when teeth are not occluded.

Both statements are true

After taking a periodical of tooth #24 using the paralleling technique, the dental hygienist notices the image appears elongated. How would the dental hygienist correct this error?

Increase negative vertical angulation

A patient in her seventh mont ho pregnancy begins to feel nauseous during the dental prophylaxis. Suddenly, the patient begins to sweat and starts grasping for air. What is the patient experiencing?

Supine hypotensive syndrome

Supine hypotensive syndrome is an abrupt fall in blood pressure resulting from compression of the inferior vena cava by the gravid uterus when the patient is in a supine position. It manifests as bradycardia, sweating, nausea, weakness, and air hunger.

Which vaccination does OSHA require employers to offer all personnel at risk of exposure to blood and other potentially infectious materials?

Hepatitis B

The Hepatitis B airs (HBV) is transmitted through ingestion of foods or water contaminated by an infected person. The Hepatitis A virus (HAV) is transmitted through blood, blood products, or body fluids.

Both statements are false. It's swapped.

The Hepatitis A virus is transmitted through ingestion of foods or water contaminated by an infected person. The HBV virus is transmitted through blood.

Which pathogen is transmitted via inhalation of airborne droplet nuclei?

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

Each of the following medical emergencies indicates administration of oxygen EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION?

Hyperventilation

Which sounds results from a bronchospasm that occurs during an asthmatic attack?

Wheezing

Which oral physiotherapy is indicated for a patient with type I embrasures?

Dental floss

The exaggerated inflammatory response of gingival tissues to local irritants that can occur during pregnancy is commonly known as pregnancy gingivitis. This exaggerated response of gingival tissues is sue to an increase in the systemic level of the hormone testosterone.

The first statement is true and the second is false

Where on the learning-ladder continuum does a patient recognize a problem and indicate a tentative inclination toward action?

Self-interest

Where on the learning-ladder continuum does a patient institute a new behavior?

Action

Where on the learning-ladder continuum is the patient motivated to act on the information provided?

Involvement

Dental needles are available in three lengths: long, short, and ultrashort. The lower the cause number of the needle, the smaller the diameter of the lumen

The first statement is true and the second is false

Which is the most common desensitizing agent found in over-the-counter dentifrices?

Potassium nitrate

Pain threshold is the point at which an uncomfortable stimulus is perceived as painful. Pain tolerance is the maximum amount of pain a person can tolerate.

Both statements are true.

Which preservative ingredient is in local anesthesics?

Sodium bisulfite

Which strategy should be implemented for a patient who presents with a sustain blood pressure reading of 160/100 mm Hg with no previous history of hypertension?

Postpone treatment and refer patient to physician of record.

Which oral hygiene index included all teething the assessment and is used for plaque visualization and oral hygiene motivation?

O'Leary's Plaque Control Record

Which is classified as an acquired disability?

Multiple sclerosis (MS)

Which is a developmental disability?

Chromosomal abnormality

Which should be obtained when physical restraint is recommended for patient safety during a dental procedure?

Informed consent

Informed consent give permission from a patient, or legal guardian, after the potential risks of treatment have been explained. Implied consent occurs when a patient without a formal agreement, consents to treatment through actions. Informed refusal occurs when a patient declines treatment after a tx plan is presented. Implied approval is not a legal term used in dentistry.

Which person may give consent when presenting a treatment plan for an incompetent adult?

Legal guardian

For elective dental procedures, in which trimester should a pregnant patient be treated?

Second

When developing oral hygiene instruction for an elderly patient, at what age should the education material be directed?

Functional

Functional age is based on performance capacities of the patient; educational strategies are always based on a patient's functional ability.

During a case presentation, which patient visual impairment requires the clinician to be positioned to the patients side?

Macular degeneration

Which best describes the principal cause of the periodontitis?

Host response to bacterial plaque biofilm

Which bony structure is initially destroyed by periodontitis?

Cortical plate of interdental septum

The initial examination of a 45 yr old female reveals localized advanced periodontitis. Which is the initial treatment?

Nonsurgical periodontal therapy

Which periodontal disease does NOT benefit from systemic antibiotic treatment?

Localized advanced chronic

Which sequence of debridement is recommended for moderate periodontitis (Case type III)?

Quadrant scaling and root planing in four treatment appointments

At which interval of maintenance treatment, in months, does the long-term success of nonsurgical periodontal therapy rely?

3 months

An assessment of the patient's dentition reveals the presence of a large amalgam overhang. Radiographic evidence confirms that nearly two-thirds of the inter-proximal embrasure space is obstructed by amalgam. Which procedure is indicated?

Replacement of restoration