Chapter 15: Chemical Texture Services

All of the following are reasons to study chemical texture services EXCEPT:

A) texture services are in high demand because they allow clients to follow popular hairstyle trends by changing the texture of their hair.

B) cosmetologists who understand how to perform texture services can meet client expectations while safely treating their hair.

C) salons require cosmetologists who perform hair color services to also perform texture services as a condition of employment.

D) texture services require frequent maintenance, which leads to profitable and recurring appointments.

C) salons require cosmetologists who perform hair color services to also perform texture services as a condition of employment.

How do chemical hair relaxers work?

A) they break the hydrogen bonds, which are responsible for the hair's texture, in order to change the hair from straight to curly, or curly to straight.

B) they increase the hair's pH balance to an alkaline state, which raises the cuticle layer and allows the relaxer to reach the cortex, where restructuring takes place.

C) they decrease the hair's pH balance to an alkaline state, allowing the relaxer to reach the hair follicle, which restructures the hair's texture.

D) they repair broken disulfide bonds that attach to the natural keratin found in hair fibers to permanently restructure the hair's shape.

B) they increase the hair's pH balance to an alkaline state, which raises the cuticle layer and allows the relaxer to reach the cortex, where restructuring takes place.

A higher frequency of curl reversion occurs in relaxers that use which of the following active ingredients?

A) ammonium thioglycolate

B) ammonium sulfite

C) sodium hydroxide

D) guanidine hydroxide

B) ammonium sulfite

Which statement describes no-lye relaxers?

A) no-lye relaxers process faster than other types of relaxers because the mixture absorbs quickly and breaks the disulfide bonds faster.

B) cosmetologists prefer no-lye relaxers because they prevent the mineral build-up that causes hair to dry out.

C) no-lye relaxers increase the acidity of the hair and scalp, which prevents the growth of harmful bacteria that cause brittleness.

D) because no-lye relaxers have a lower pH, they are suitable for clients who have scalp sensitivities.

D) because no-lye relaxers have a lower pH, they are suitable for clients who have scalp sensitivities.

Hydroxide relaxers permanently straighten hair by removing one of the bonded sulfur atoms in a disulfide bond. What is the name of this process?

A) lanthionization

B) this neutralization

C) thermal reconditioning

D) keratin smoothing

A) lanthionization

How does this neutralization differ from hydroxide neutralization?

A) thio relaxers are more effective at fully straightening the hair.

B) the neutralization of thio relaxers involves oxidation.

C) cosmetologists need advanced certification to apply thio relaxers.

D) thio relaxers have a lower viscosity and a lower pH.

B) the neutralization of thio relaxers involves oxidation.

A client wants to straighten coarse hair. The client mentions that their hair often seems frizzy and is concerned that if their hair loses all its curl it might look even frizzier. The client also seems hesitant to make a permanent change. Which service should the cosmetologist recommend?

A) soft curl perm

B) low-pH relaxer

C) Jheri curl

D) keratin treatment

D) keratin treatment

When using relaxer products, why should the cosmetologist avoid using metal clips?

A) they can get hot when used with a relaxer that requires heat to process.

B) they could cause a chemical reaction when used with a relaxer.

C) they break easily and tend to rust with repeated washes.

D) they make it more difficult to detangle the hair without pulling.

B) they could cause a chemical reaction when used with a relaxer.

Which item prevents direct contact between the client and the chemical cape?

A) disposable gloves

B) neck strips

C) plastic clips

D) base creams

B) neck strips

Under which of the following conditions can a texture service be performed?

A) a strand analysis indicated the hair has low porosity and high elasticity.

B) a patch test shows mild redness on the scalp and the client reports slight itching.

C) a metallic salts test indicates the presence of metallic salts in the hair is minimal.

D) a scalp analysis identifies fewer than six blemishes or abrasions on the scalp.

A) a strand analysis indicated the hair has low porosity and high elasticity.

Which of the following practices helps ensure a safe outcome when performing chemical texture services?

A) rinse the relaxer and neutralizer from the hair using warm water.

B) use a wide-tooth comb to smooth the relaxer through the hair and scalp.

C) alternate the use of hydroxide relaxers and thio relaxers.

D) shampoo the hair thoroughly just before applying the relaxer.

A) rinse the relaxer and neutralizer from the hair using warm water.

A client who is considering a chemical relaxer service frequently consumes highly caffeinated beverages. Why does this matter?

A) overconsumption of caffeine can cause burning, tingling, and scalp tenderness, which are symptoms of a type of alopecia.

B) individuals who have had henna treatments are more likely to consume large quantities of caffeine.

C) caffeine increases blood circulation, which can lead to faster irritation caused by the use of chemical relaxers.

D) many carbonated beverages contain caffeine, which can make the hair frizzier and more prone to breaking.

C) caffeine increases blood circulation, which can lead to faster irritation caused by the use of chemical relaxers.

Which of the following conditions would be cause for a cosmetologist to decline relaxer services?

A) the client wants to use their own brand of high-quality products as part of the hair care regimen.

B) the client has a pins-and-needles sensation on the scalp, and the hair is thinning.

C) the client's hair was highlighted approximately 4 weeks ago at a different salon.

D) the client spends a lot of time in the pool, which has caused mineral buildup on the hair.

B) the client has a pins-and-needles sensation on the scalp, an the hair is thinning.

All of the following occur during the consultation for chemical relaxer EXCEPT:

A) discussing risks associated with relaxers

B) confirming if a relaxer is the best treatment

C) asking what the client dislikes about the hair

D) performing a metallic salts test

D) performing a metallic salts test

Prior to conducting a consultation for chemical relaxer services, which document should clients fill out and cosmetologists review so they can discuss any items of note?

A) service release form

B) client service record

C) service intent form

D) client intake form

D) client intake form

How does a relaxer retouch differ from the application of a virgin relaxer?

A) a relaxer retouch is used only with hydroxide relaxers

B) a relaxer retouch is used only on new hair growth

C) a relaxer retouch is applied only to the scalp and the ends of the hair

D) a relaxer retouch is used only on dense, coarse hair

B) a relaxer retouch is used only on new hair growth

When using a virgin relaxer, apply the relaxer to the ______.

A) midshaft first and then the ends and scalp

B) scalp and mid shaft first and then the ends

C) ends first and then the scalp and midshaft

D) midshaft and ends first and then the scalp

A) midshaft first and then the ends and scalp

A hair analysis indicates the client has non-porous hair. Which perm type should the cosmetologist recommend?

A) true acid wave

B) thin-free wave

C) alkaline/cold wave

D) low-pH wave

C) alkaline/cold wave

What is the active ingredient in acid waves?

A) monoethanolamine (MEA)

B) ammonium thioglycolate (ATG)

C) glycerol monothioglycolate (GMTG)

D) aminomethylpropanol (AMP)

C) glycerol monothioglycolate (GMTG)

Which of the following perm types is processed without a heat source?

A) endothermic waves

B) alkaline waves

C) exothermic waves

D) true acid waves

B) alkaline waves

How do alkaline perms differ from acid perms?

A) alkaline perms have a higher pH

B) alkaline perms work best on color-treated hair

C) alkaline perms alter the hair temporarily

D) alkaline perms use GMTG as the active ingredient

A) alkaline perms have a higher pH

When does the majority of the processing for permanent waving occur?

A) within 2 minutes

B) wishing 5 to 10 minutes

C) after 15 minutes

D) after 25 minutes

B) wishing 5 to 10 minutes

Which of the following is an indication of over processed hair?

A) hair is straighter at the scalp and curlier at the ends

B) hair is straight at the scalp and the ends

C) hair is curly at the scalp and the ends

D) hair is curlier at the scalp and straighter at the ends

D) hair is curlier at the scalp and straighter at the ends

To perm coarse hair, the solution must have enough ______ ions to break the required number of disulfide bonds.

A) potassium

B) hydrogen

C) sodium

D) calcium

B) hydrogen

When a perm is processed correctly, it breaks and rebuilds how much of the hair's disulfide bonds?

A) 25 percent

B) 50 percent

C) 75 percent

D) 100 percent

B) 50 percent

When using perm rods, which placement minimizes the amount of stress and level of tension on the hair?

A) 45 degrees beyond perpendicular

B) parallel to the base

C) 45 degrees below perpendicular

D) perpendicular to the base

D) perpendicular to the base

All of the following perm rods have a uniform diameter EXCEPT:

A) loop rods

B) circle rods

C) soft bender rods

D) concave rods

D) concave rods

Which of the following item(s) prevents fishhooks?

A) roller picks

B) end papers

C) pre-neutralizing conditioners

D) protective barrier creams

B) end papers

Which of the following describes a proper technique for winding hair on perm rods?

A) place two end papers under the base panel and two above the base panel so that the ends and sides of the hair meet the edges of the end papers.

B) place one end paper above the base panel so that the ends of the hair extend to three-quarters the length of the paper and then fold the end paper in half.

C) place on end paper under the base panel and one above the base panel so that the papers extend past the ends of the hair.

D) place one end paper under the base panel so that the ends and sides of the hair extend past the end paper and then fold the paper into thirds.

C) place on end paper under the base panel and one above the base panel so that the papers extend past the ends of the hair.

When dividing hair into base sections for perm wraps, how many rods are used in each section and what factors determine the size of each section?

A) two rods; type of and width of the rods

B) one rod; the materials used in the rod

C) two rods; the shape and placement of the rods

D) one rod; length and width of the rod

D) one rod; length and width of the rod

Which service uses a thiol-based chemical process and is recommended for loosening hair texture that is extremely curly into a larger curl pattern?

A) exothermic wave

B) soft curl permanent

C) no-lye relaxer

D) thermal reconditioning

B) soft curl permanent

When wrapping hair for a perm, which pattern provides the greatest flexibility for directional flow?

A) bricklay

B) spiral

C) basic

D) double-rod

A) bricklay

A client has thick hair that extends below the shoulders. The client wants to have uniform curls and volume. Which technique should the cosmetologist choose to meet the client's request while also minimizing stress and tension on the client's hair?

A) a croquignole wrap with on-base placement

B) a spiral wrap with on-base placement

C) a croquignole wrap with off-base placements

D) a spiral wrap with half off-base placement

D) a spiral wrap with half off-base placement

What is the proper placement of bands on perm rods?

A) wrapped around the rod

B) on the top

C) alternating between top and bottom

D) on the bottom

B) on the top

Before permanent wave service, what is one of the reasons cosmetologists perform test curls?

A) to check for adverse reactions to the perm solution

B) to confirm the presence of metallic salts

C) to determine if a different rod size is needed

D) to verify whether the hair has been bleached

C) to determine if a different rod size is needed

What should the cosmetologist instruct clients to do if perm solution drips into the eyes?

A) pat the eyes dry with a soft, warm towel

B) apply protective cream closer to the eyes

C) flush the eyes thoroughly with cool water

D) rinse the eyes with a special neutralizer solution

C) flush the eyes thoroughly with cool water

To what areas should protective cream be applied when performing a perm?

A) around both eyes and both ears

B) below both ears and the nape of the neck

C) inside both ears and around both eyes

D) around the hairline, the nape of the neck, and both ears

D) around the hairline, the nape of the neck, and both ears

A professional perm consultation should do all of the following EXCEPT:

A) ask the client about any adverse reactions to previous perm services and if the client is aware of the risks

B) have the client sign an agreement to come in for follow-up texture services essential to maintaining the style

C) show the client images of textures that demonstrate what results are realistic given the hair's texture

D) ascertain whether the client wants to add curls, waves, or body to the hair, and how much time the client devotes daily to styling hair

B) have the client sign an agreement to come in for follow-up texture services essential to maintaining the style

Cosmetologists should recommend that clients take which of the following steps to preserve moisture after a soft curl perm?

A) shampooing the hair within the first 24 hours

B) applying protective base cream to the scalp before showering

C) wearing a processing cap while sleeping

D) staying indoors during the sunniest part of the day

C) wearing a processing cap while sleeping

What is the proper technique for unwinding test curls to check for proper development?

A) unwind the curl two or three turns

B) unwind the curl one turn

C) unwind the curl completely

D) unwind the curl halfway to the S shape

A) unwind the curl two or three turns

The active ingredient or reducing agent in alkaline permanent waves is ______.

A) ammonium thioglycolate

B) hydrogen thioglycolate

C) alkaline acids

D) glyceryl monothioglycolate

A) ammonium thioglycolate

What is the main active ingredient in true acid and acid-balanced waving lotions?

A) glyceryl monothioglycolate

B) ammonium thioglycolic

C) sodium hydroxide

D) sodium hydrochloride

A) glyceryl monothioglycolate

Waves that are activated from an outside heat source, such as a conventional hooded blowdryer, are ______ waves.

A) stabilized

B) endothermic

C) exothermic

D) acid

B) endothermic

Hair that has too many broken disulfide bonds and will not hold a firm curl is considered ______.

A) underprocessed

B) overprocessed

C) undernerutralized

D) overtinted

B) overprocessed

The process that stops the action of permanent wave solution and rebuilds the hair into its new form is called ______.

A) sectioning

B) rinsing

C) thio neutralization

D) normalization

C) thio neutralization

What do the most common neutralizers contain?

A) sodium chloride

B) chlorine

C) hydrogen peroxide

D) sulfur

C) hydrogen peroxide

______ combines the use of a thio relaxer with flat ironing.

A) permanent waving

B) heat styling

C) Japanese thermal straightening

D) Chinese thermal straightening

C) Japanese thermal straightening

Hair that is treated with hydroxide relaxers should not be treated with ______.

A) conditioning solutions

B) color shampoos

C) thio relaxers

D) normalizing solutions

C) thio relaxers

Sodium hydroxide relaxers are commonly called ______.

A) metal relaxers

B) no-lye relaxers

C) lye relaxers

D) guanidine relaxers

C) lye relaxers

Which hydroxide relaxer does not require the application of a protective base?

A) no-base relaxer

B) base cream relaxer

C) cream relaxer

D) metal hydroxide relaxer

A) no-base relaxer