Quiz 5 Ch 12

1. In preparing a patient for surgery, which of the following should be removed to facilitate oxygen blood level assessment?

a. dentures

b. hearing aids

c. nail polish

d. makeup

c. nail polish

2. Which type of sterile gown uses battery-powered ventilation for the wearer?

a. reusable cloth

b. impervious backed

c. full coverage system

d. disposable fluid resistant

c. full coverage system

3. Which component of personal protective equipment (PPE) has shown the ability to decrease disease transmission from needle punctures?

a. double gloving

b. full coverage system

c. lead aprons/shields

d. splash guard mask

a. double gloving

4. All of the following are requirements of the Kraske position EXCEPT:

(A) patient is prone with hips over the break of the table

(B) a pillow is placed under lower legs and ankles

(C) a padded knee strap is applied 2 in above knees

(D) arms are tucked in at sides

(D) arms are tucked in at sides

5. During the process of setting up the sterile field, efficiency and economy of motion recommend that the surgical technologist (ST):

a. move items only once if possible

b. position back table close to door

c. place as many instruments on Mayo stand as possible

d. request that circulating RN open all supplies for case after ST is gowned and gloved

a. move items only once if possible

6. What is the correct way to count radiopaque 4 × 4 sponges?

(A) Keep the tab on the 4 × 4's, give a slight shake, and count while holding

(B) Remove the tab and count by 2's

(C) Remove the tab and count each sponge individually

(D) Lay them out and let the circulator count them and proceed with your setup

(C) Remove the tab and count each sponge individually

7. The main purpose of the surgical skin prep is to:

a. provide a visible area of paint where the incision will be made

b. reduce the microbial count on the skin to an irreducible minimum

c. remove all resident and transient flora from the planned incision site

d. sterilize the patient's skin to prevent post-op surgical site infections

b. reduce the microbial count on the skin to an irreducible minimum

8. The first closing count is performed on which abdominal layer?

(A) Skin

(B) Subcutaneous

(C) When the surgeon requests

(D) Peritoneum

(D) Peritoneum

9. Which gloving method should be performed by the surgical technologist after donning a sterile gown and before setting up the back table?

a. assisted gloving

b. closed gloving

c. open gloving

d. triple gloving

b. closed gloving

10. Up to what area of the arms does a surgical technologist scrub?

a. 1 inch below the elbows

b. 2 inches below the elbows

c. 1 inch above the elbows

d. 2 inches above the elbows

d. 2 inches above the elbows

11. Which of the following techniques of counting sponges on the sterile field is an example of best practice?

a. Count packages, leaving paper bands around and intact to prevent mixing of sponges before use.

b. Count quietly and to yourself, and record totals with a skin marker on the back table cover.

c. Remove paper bands around sponges; separate each sponge into separate piles while counting aloud with the circulator

d. Remove paper bands around sponges, hold pack in hand and fan out to separate, and then count aloud while touching each sponge.

c. Remove paper bands around sponges; separate each sponge into separate piles while counting aloud with the circulator

12. Prior to draping the patient, all must be performed EXCEPT:

(A) anesthesia is given

(B) dispersive electrode is placed

(C) active electrode is secured

(D) Foley catheter is inserted

(C) active electrode is secured

13. Which method of gloving is appropriate for placement of a urinary catheter as part of the skin prep?

a. closed gloving

b. open gloving

c. double gloving

d. unsterile gloving

b. open gloving

14. Where is the safety belt or strap placed on a patient in supine position on the OR table?

a. 2 inches proximal to the ankles

b. 2 inches distal to the knees

c. 2 inches proximal to the knees

d. 2 inches distal to the perineal region

c. 2 inches proximal to the knees

15. The sitting position is a modification of which position?

a. Trendelenburg

b. lithotomy

c. Fowler's

d. Kraske

c. Fowler's

16. The position for most open-bladder surgery would be:

a. Supine

b. Reverse Trendelenburg

c. Lithotomy

d. Modified Fowler's

a. Supine

17. Antiembolism devices or SCDs are placed on the patient's legs prior to surgery to:

(A) prevent thromboembolus

(B) prevent cramping

(C) provide protection from metal parts of the OR table

(D) assist in the range of motion

(A) prevent thromboembolus

18. A position for cranial procedures is called:

a. trendelenburg

b. lithotomy

c. kraske

d. fowlers

d. fowlers

19. When moving a patient with a fracture in the OR, all of the following are true EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

a. extra personnel are necessary

b. Personnel on the affected side support the fracture

c. the surgeon should be the one supporting the fracture during the transfer and positioning.

d. Support of the extremity should be from above and below the fracture site

b. Personnel on the affected side support the fracture

20. Crossing the patients arms across his or her chest may cause:

a. pressure on the ulnar nerve

b. interference with circulation

c. interference with respiration

d. postoperative discomfort

c. interference with respiration

21. Antiembolism devices or SCDs are placed on the patient's legs prior to surgery to:

a. prevent thromboembolus

b. assist in the range of motion

c. prevent cramping

d. provide protection from metal parts of the OR table

a. prevent thromboembolus

22. The desirable position for better visualization in the lower abdomen or pelvis is:

a. kraske

b. reverse trendelenburg

c. trendelenburg

d. Fowlers

c. trendelenburg

23. When draping the perineum, what is the correct order of the following steps: (1) fenestrated drape, (2) under the buttocks drape, (3) legging drape?

(A) 1, 2 ,3

(B) 2, 1 ,3

(C) 3, 2 ,1

(D) 2, 3 ,1

(D) 2, 3 ,1

24. The word "fenestrated" refers to:

a. transparent

b. an opening

c. width of drape

d. length of drape

b. an opening

25. Risks associated with prep solutions pooling under a patient include:

a. causes no harm to patient

b. chemical burn

c. blistering and skin loss

d. both B and C

d. both B and C

26. The main purpose of the skin prep is to:

(A) remove resident and transient flora

(B) remove dirt, oil, and microbes, and reduce the microbial count

(C) remove all bacteria from the skin

(D) sterilize the patient's skin

(B) remove dirt, oil, and microbes, and reduce the microbial count

27. When preparing a patient for a breast biopsy, a breast scrub is either eliminated or done very gently because of:

(A) patient anxiety

(B) dispersal of cancer cells

(C) contamination

(D) infection

(B) dispersal of cancer cells

28. Any area that is considered contaminated:

(A) should be scrubbed last or separately

(B) should not be scrubbed at all

(C) should be scrubbed first

(D) needs no special consideration

(A) should be scrubbed last or separately

29. Which statement demonstrates a break in technique during the draping process?

(A) Gloved hands may touch the skin of the patient.

(B) Discard a drape that becomes contaminated.

(C) Discard a sheet that falls below table level.

(D) Cover or discard a drape that has a hole.

(A) Gloved hands may touch the skin of the patient.

30. When using utility drapes, what is the correct order of handing them to the surgeon: (1) drape is handed and placed superior, (2) drape is handed and placed inferior, (3) drape is handed on the same side as the surgeon, (4) drape is placed opposite the first drape.

(A) 1, 2, 3, 4

(B) 2, 1, 3, 4

(C) 3, 1, 2, 4

(D) 4, 3, 1, 2

(C) 3, 1, 2, 4