staph - flashcards

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facultative anaerobes

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i left out some morphology stuff so review those slides !

66 Terms

1

facultative anaerobes

staph and rothia

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2

what do these GPC have in common?

  • all are normal flora of skin and mucous membranes

  • non motile

  • catalase producing

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3

what test should we do when we see a GPC?

catalase!

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4

transmission/predisposing conditions - s. aureus

  • unwashed hands, inanimate objects, traumatic introduction

  • hospital outbreaks in nurseries, burn units, surgical pts

  • indwelling devices, skin injuries, immune response defects, chronic infections

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5

s. aureus diseases

  • skin/wound infections

  • scalded skin syndrome (ritter’s)

  • TSS

  • food poisoning

  • pneumonia (after influenza A; v deadly)

  • bacteremia, endocarditis (via IV injection)

  • osteomyelitis (secondary to bacteremia)

  • septic arthritis

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6

skin and wound infections - s. aureus

folliculitis, furunculosis, carbunculosis, bullous impetigo

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7

scalded skin syndrome (ritter’s)

  • infants/children

  • exfoliative toxin: body-wide exfoliative dermatitis

  • profuse peeling of epidermis

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8

TSS - s. aureus

  • toxin TSST-1: super Ag stimulates t-cells = cytokine storm

  • multisystem illness

  • fever, trunk rash, dehydration, hypotension, shock, death

  • high absorbent tampons and post op infections

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9

food poisoning - s. aureus

  • infected food handler

  • rapid (2-8hr): nausea, vomiting, abd pain/cramps, diarrhea, headaches (NO FEVER)

  • enterotoxin: present in food (formed outside body)

    • heat stable (A-E, G-J); super Ags

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10

list the s. aureus virulence factors

  • cytolytic (alpha, beta, gamma, delta)

  • exfoliative toxin

  • TSST-1

  • enterotoxins

  • protein A

  • enzymes

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11

alpha hemolysin - s. aureus

lyses rbcs, damages plts, macros, tissue

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12

beta hemolysin (sphingomyelinase C) - s. aureus

attacks sphingomyelin in rbc membrane = lysis

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13

gamma hemolysin - s. aureus

  • associated with PVL

    • toxic to PMNs preventing phagocytosis; associated with severe primary skin infections and necrotic pneumonia

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14

delta hemolysin - s. aureus

usually less toxic than alpha/beta hemolysins

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15

protein A - s. aureus

  • binds Fc portion of IgG neutralizing Ab

  • found in cell wall

  • blocks phagocytosis

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16

virulence enzymes used by s. aureus

  • protease, hyaluronidase, lipase: destroy tissue and spread infection

  • staphylocoagulase

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17

s. aureus colony morphology

  • large zones of beta hemolysis

  • appear sl yellow after long incubation

  • larger colonies than CoNS

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18

list the CoNS

  • epidermidis

  • saprophyticus

  • lugdunensis

  • haemolyticus

  • pseuodintermedius

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19

diseases - s. epidermidis

  • hospital acquired (indwelling devices, immunotherapy)

    • catheters, shunts, prosthetics, implants (biofilms)

  • leading cause of nosocomial UTIs

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20

list the 2 virulence factors of s. epidermidis

  • slime biofilm layer

  • poly-gamma-DL-glutamic acid: adherence and protection against host defenses

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21

s. epidermidis colony morphology

small-medium white/gray; non hemolytic (gamma)

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22

disease - s. saprophyticus

  • UTIs in young sexually active women

  • adheres better to epi cells in urinary tract than other CoNS

  • resistant to novobiocin

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23

s. saprophyticus colony morphology

can appear yellowish

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24

diseases - s. lugdunensis

  • infective endocarditis, septicemia, meningitis, skin/soft tissue infections, UTIs, septic shock

  • more virulent (like s. aureus)

  • can be resistant to oxacillin (mecA)

  • aggressive endocarditis = requires valve replacement; higher mortality

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25

s. lugdunensis colony morphology

often beta hemolytic

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26

diseases - s. haemolyticus

  • wound infections, bacteremia, UTIs, endocarditis

  • some resistant to vancomycin

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27

s. haemolyticus colony morphology

medium; weak/mod beta hemolysis

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28

s. pseudintermedius

  • zoonotic: seen in pet owners/vet staff

  • surgical site infections, rhinosinusitis, catheter-related bacteremia

  • oxacillin resistance

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29

what requires a full ID regarding staph spp?

  • s. aureus

  • sterile specimens (non sterile = CoNS okay)

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30

methods to ID staphylococcus spp

  • biochemicals (cat, coagulase, latex)

  • antimicrobials (novobiocin)

  • selective/differential media (mannitol salt, DNase, purple broth w glucose)

  • maldi tof

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31

catalase test

  • collect colony carefully from BAP (agar will react = FP)

  • catalase + H2O2 = water and O2

  • bubbles = pos

  • no bubbles = neg

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32

coagulase test principle

  • enzyme converts FIB = fibrin = fibrin clot

    • pos in s. aureus

    • neg in CoNS

  • rabbit plasma

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33

slide coagulase test

  • detects bound coagulase (clumping factor)

    • on bacterial surface directly converting FIB to fibrin

  • some lugdenensis/schleiferi isolates are pos

    • neg for tube test

  • must be confirmed by tube coagulase

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34

tube coagulase test

  • detects free coagulase (staphylocoagulase)

    • reacts with coagulase-reacting factor forming thrombin-like complex indirectly causing clot formation

  • inoculate/incubate 37C

  • at 2 & 4 hrs examine for clot, if neg = let incubate at RT for 24 hrs

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35

latex agglutination assay

  • uses latex particles coated with plasma/Abs

    • detects clumping factor/protein A

  • more sensitive/specific than slide coagulase test

  • pos = clumping = s. aureus

    • some saprophyticus/hominis/haemolyticus appear pos

  • neg = no clumping

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36

CLSI - presumptive ID of s. aureus

  • must have: GPC in clusters, cat pos, tube/slide coag pos OR latex pos

  • additional tests: beta hemolytic on BAP

    • tube coag not needed if beta hemolytic

  • report as “presumptive s. aureus”

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37

mannitol salt agar

  • selective/differential, nutritive with 7.5% NaCl, mannitol, phenol red

    • high salt conc = inhibits all except staph and micrococcus

  • yellow colonies = s. aureus (mannitol fermenter)

  • red colonies = other

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38

DNase test agar

  • differential to ID bacteria that produce DNase (breaks down DNA)

    • used to confirm equivocal coagulase test

    • pos = s. aureus

    • neg = CoNS

  • methyl green:

    • pos = clear zone neg = remains green

  • toluidine blue:

    • pos = pink/purple/red zone neg = remains blue

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39

purple broth with glucose

  • differential

  • staph spp produce acid from glucose (dextrose) in anaerobic conditions

  • inoculate tube, overlay surface to ensure

    • pos = yellow

    • neg = no change (purple)

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40

novobiocin disk test

  • helps ID s. saprophyticus

  • perform on urine cultures that are GPC clusters, cat pos, coag neg

  • zone <12mm = resistant (saprophyticus)

  • zone >12 mm = susceptible (other CoNS)

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41

what susceptibilities do we test for staphylococcus spp?

  • MRSA

  • inducible clindamycin resistance (D test)

  • beta lactamase production (nitrocefin)

  • VRSA/VISA

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42

beta lactamase production

  • most s. aureus/lugdunensis strains are resistant to penicillins due to beta-lactamase production

    • ***any colonies that test susceptible to penicillin = test for beta lactamase production***

  • rub colony on nitrocefin disk

    • pos = pink (beta lactamase producer)

    • neg = no color change

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43

inducible clindamycin resistance - D test

  • certain MRSA/CoNS are susceptible to clindamycin but over course of treatment could become resistant

    • we can test for this beforehand

  • streak lawn and place erythromycin and clindamycin disks 15-26mm apart

    • pos = flattened edge adjacent to erythromycin disk (resistant)

    • no flattened edge = no inducible clindamycin resistance (but can be resistant due to other means)

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44

methods to detect MRSA

  • oxacillin screen (agar/disk)

  • cefoxitin screen

  • RTPCR

  • CHROMagar MRSA

  • latex agglutination test

  • film array BCID/verigene assay

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45

MRSA detection

report as resistant for all beta lactam antimicrobials (penicillins, cephems, monobactams, penems)

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46

what other bacteria do oxacillin and cefoxitin testing apply to?

s. lugdunensis and other CoNS but with different pos thresholds

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47

oxacillin disk method

  • s. aureus only

  • streak lawn and place disk

  • zone <10 mm = resistant = MRSA

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48

oxacillin agar method

  • s. aureus only

  • mueller hinton with 4% NaCl and 6ug/ml oxacillin

  • suspend colonies in broth or saline to 0.5McF turbidity and inoculate plate, incubated 24 hrs

    • light film of growth/ >1 colony = oxacillin resistant = MRSA

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49

cefoxitin screen

  • disk test

  • zone <21 = mecA pos = oxacillin resistant = MRSA

  • also used to determine methicillin resistance of lugdunensis

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50

CHROMagar MRSA

  • inoculate plate

  • MRSA = mauve colored colonies

  • non MRSA = normal colonies

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51

latex agglutination test - MRSA

  • like staph test but target is PBP-2

  • agglutination = pos = MRSA

  • no agglutination = neg = MSSA

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52

what is the gold standard for MRSA detection?

  • mecA gene detection via PCR or molecular nucleic acid probes

  • RTPCR: IDes MRSA/MSSA; used in infection control practices to reduce MRSA via rapid test results (ICU)

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53

mecA gene

  • most common cause of oxacillin resistance

  • codes for PBP2a (altered) so that oxacillin does not bind (ineffective)

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54

how to detect MRSA from blood cultures directly?

  • filmarray BCID and verigene blood culture assay

    • detected 1-2hrs after blood Cx flags pos

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55

VRSA screening test - agar

  • inoculate brain-heart infusion + 6ug/ml vancomycin in same manner as oxacillin plate

  • incubate for 24hrs and examine for light film OR >1 colony using transmitted light

  • if pos:

    • perform broth microdilution test to determine VRSA or VISA and review before reporting

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56

micrococcus characteristics

  • normal skin flora; can be opportunistic in immunocomp pts

  • usually a contaminant

  • can be resistant to numerous different treatments

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57

micrococcus morphology

  • strict aerobes

  • poor CHOC growth

  • small/medium bright yellow colonies

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58

micrococcus biochemicals

  • cat pos, coag neg

  • anaerobic acid production from glucose neg

  • microdase/lysostaphin pos

  • bacitracin/polymixin B disk susceptible

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59

microdase (modified oxidase test)

  • disk has TMPD and DMSO

  • TMPD reacts with oxidase and cytochrome c = indophenol (dark blue/purple)

  • rub colonies onto dry disk and examine for 2 min

    • pos = blue/purple

    • neg = no color change (yellow)

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60

microdase reagents

  • tetramethyl-p-phenylenediamine: detects cytochrome c

  • dimethyl sulfoxide: enhances permeability of bacterial cells

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61

lysostaphin test

  • lyses staph but not micrococcus

  • add soln to tube with bacterial suspension

  • incubate for 3 hrs then examine for turbidity

    • pos = turbid = micrococcus

    • neg = clear = staph spp

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62

bacitracin A disk test

  • 0.04 U disk differentiates micrococcus from staph spp

  • zone >10mm = susceptible (micrococcus)

  • zone 6mm = resistant (staph spp)

  • zone 7-9mm = repeat test (usually susceptible)

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63

polymixin B disk test

  • differentiates multiple species

  • zone <10 mm = resistant = s. aureus, lugdunensis, epidermidis

  • zone >10 mm = susceptible = micrococcus, other CoNS

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64

rothia characteristics

  • normal flora of URT

  • opportunistic in immunocomp pts, drug users

    • endocarditis, septicemia

  • rothia (stomatococcus) mucilanginosa

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65

rothia morphology

  • small/medium gray

  • very sticky: will come off agar completely if pulled

    • can appear like clumping on slide coagulase/staph latex tests!

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66

rothia biochemicals

  • cat pos, coag neg

  • anaerobic production of acid from glucose pos

  • bacitracin susceptible

  • polymixin B resistant

  • typically susceptible to penicillin

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