(2025)PT EVAL 3025 Exam 1 Practice

Which of the following best describes the primary role of a respiratory therapist in patient assessment?

Assisting physicians with diagnostic reasoning and treatment planning

Which of the following is NOT one of the three key elements of patient-centered care?

Strict adherence to physician orders without patient input

Which factor is considered an internal factor that may affect communication between a clinician and a patient?

Cultural heritage

True or False: The introductory stage of the clinical encounter should occur within intimate space (0-18 inches) to establish trust.

False, it should occur within social space (4-12 ft)

During the initial assessment stage of patient interaction, the appropriate use of personal space is:

18 inches-4 feet from the patient

Which of the following must always be included when documenting assessment findings?

Date and time of the procedure

As a respiratory therapist, what stage does your first assessment of a patient first occur?

Pre-interaction stage

True or False: Discussing a patient's case with another provider who is not directly involved in the patient's care violates confidentiality rules.

True

Which ability is most closely associated with situational awareness in culturally competent communication?

Recognizing misunderstanding during cross-cultural encounters

A patient with limited literacy struggles to understand treatment instructions. The most effective approach to overcome this learning barrier would be:

Simplify and clearly explain information step by step

Which type of interview question is most effective for encouraging patients to describe their symptoms in their own words?

Open-ended questions

True or False: Alternative sources of patient history, such as electronic health records and family members, can be used when patients are unable to provide reliable information.

True

Which of the following best differentiates objective data from subjective data?

Objective data refers to signs, while subjective data refers to symptoms

Which of the following is an example of social and environmental history in a patient's medical record?

Patient's occupation and alcohol use

A progress note in a patient's chart typically includes:

Daily entries of the patient's response to treatment by healthcare providers

True or False: An DNR provides instructions regarding patient care in situations where the patient is unable to make medical decisions.

False, it's the advanced directive

A patient's chart is labeled with a DNR order. Which of the following best reflects what this means?

The patient should not undergo resuscitation if cardiac or respiratory arrest occurs

Demographic data of a patient includes

Date of birth, address, race, marital status, religion, occupation

Pack-years

Number of packs a day a patient smokes multiplied by number of years patient has smoked

If a patient smokes 3 packs a day and has smoked for 10 years, what is the patient's pack-years?

30 pack-years

What are pertinent negatives

Negative responses to important questions

The Review of Systems (ROS) is completed by the patient before they are seen, and provides ________ data

subjective (symptoms)

Chief complaint

Problem that brought the patient into the hospital

PQRST

P: Provocative/palliative (What is the cause, what makes it better/worse)

Q: Quality/quantity (how much is involved, how does it feel)

R: Region/radiation (where does it hurt)

S: Severity/scale (does it interfere with daily activities)

T: Timing (when did it begin)

Occupational and Environmental history

Exposure to potential disease-producing substances (particles, dusts, fumes, or gases) due to traveling, work environment, etc

The most common symptom of pulmonary disease is

cough

The Arnold nerve response occurs when

tactile pressure in the ear canal stimulates coughing

Which nerve is NOT part of the afferent pathway of the cough reflex?

Hypoglassal

True or False: The expiratory phase of a cough involves closure of the glottis and relaxation of the diaphragm.

False, that is the compression phase

Which factor can reduce the effectiveness of a cough?

Decrease in lung coil (emphysema)

Which of the following describes a paroxysmal cough?

Periodic and prolonged, forceful episodes,

True or False: A paroxysmal cough is most often associated with asthma or left heart failure.

True

Which cough description is most often linked to bronchospasm?

Wheezy cough

Complications such as torn chest muscles, rib fractures, or even pneumothorax can result from:

Severe coughing

Which of the following correctly differentiates sputum from phlegm?

Phlegm originates from the lower airways, sputum once expelled from the upper airways

True or False: Normal sputum production in a healthy adult is approximately 500 mL/day.

False, it is less than 100mL/day

Bronchorrhea is sputum production that is more than

100 mL/day

A patient presents with frothy, white/pink sputum. This finding is most consistent with:

Pulmonary edema (swelling)

Mucoid (white-gray and thick) sputum can indicate

emphysema, pulmonary tuberculosis, asthma

Pink, thin, blood-streaked sputum may indicate

streptococci or staphylococci

Silicone-like Casts Sputum

bronchial asthma

Apple-green thick sputum

haemophilus influenzae

Red currant jelly sputum

klebsiella species

A cigarette smoker's sputum is most likely to appear

brown

Yellow or green, copious sputum is most consistent with

pseudomonas species pneumonia, advanced bronchitis, bronchiectasis

Rusty sputum is most consistent with

pneumococci

Blood-streaked sputum or hemoptysis

bronchogenic carcinoma, tuberculosis, chronic bronchitis

Which condition is most associated with fetid (foul-smelling) sputum?

Lung abscess or anaerobic infection

Which of the following is a hallmark indicator of massive hemoptysis?

400 mL in 3 hrs of 600 mL in 24 hrs

True or False: Hematemesis refers to vomiting blood from the gastrointestinal tract, whereas hemoptysis refers to coughing up blood from the respiratory system.

True

Which condition is most likely to present with chronic dyspnea?

COPD or congestive heart failure

A patient presents with purulent (pus) sputum. This finding is most consistent with:

Infection, pneumonia

Which symptom is a cardinal symptom of cardiac disease

Dyspnea (Shortness of breath)

Hemoptysis is

expectoration of sputum containing blood

Chronic dyspnea in cardiac or pulm. disease is typically assessed using what type of tool?

modified Borg scale or visual analog scales

Which is NOT a component of dyspnea?

Increased expiratory reserve volume

Work of breathing (WOB) is abnormally high for level of exertion

asthma and pneumonia

Ventilatory capacity is reduced (unable to properly move are in and out)

neuromuscular disease

Drive to breathe is elevated

hypoxemia, acidosis, exercise

Which of the following represents hyperventilation?

Rate and depth of breathing exceed metabolic need, causing hypocapnia (low CO2 in blood)

Dyspnea in upright position. Lay flat (recumbent position) to relieve dyspnea.

Platypnea

Dyspnea in one lateral position but not in the other lateral position

Trepopnea

Arterial oxygen desaturation caused by upright position and relieved by returning to recumbent position

Orthodeoxia

Dyspnea in recumbent position

Orthopnea

Increased DEPTH of breathing with or without increased rate

hyperpnea

Decreased DEPTH of breathing

Hypopnea

Absence of spontaneous ventilation

Apnea

Normal rate of depth and breathing

Eupnea

Unpleasent awareness of difficulty breathing

Dyspnea

Less than normal RATE of breathing

bradypnea

Rapid RATE of breathing

tachypnea

Grave sign associated with extreme SOB, need for immediate treatment

air hunger

Decreased alveolar ventilation caused by decreased rate or decreased depth or both

Hypoventilation

Increased alveolar ventilation caused by increased rate or increased depth or both

Hyperventilation

Sudden dyspnea when sleeping. Associated with coughing and a sign of left heart failure

Paroxysmal Nocturnal Dyspnea (PND)

Clinical type of Dyspnea: Psychogenic

panic disorder, not due to exercise

Clinical type of Dyspnea: cardiac and circulatory

heart failure, inadequate supply of O2 to tissues.. typically during exercise

Children with asthma, bronchiolitis, or croup. Adults with asthma, pulmonary embolism, pneumonia, pneumothorax, pulmonary edema

Acute or recurrent dyspnea

COPD and Congestive Heart Failure (CHF)

Chronic dyspnea

Angina (chest pain) is seen as an emergent condition because it is a cardinal symptom of

heart disease

Which is the most common cause of angina?

Cardiac ischemia

True or false: Chest wall pain caused by intercostal or pectoral muscle strain is typically well localized

True

A patient reports chest pain that worsens with coughing, sneezing, and laughter. This pain most likely originates from

Pleuritic involvement of the parietal pleura

Which of the following features is most helpful in distinguishing chest wall pain from cardiac angina?

Well localized and reproducible pressure

Pleuritic pain is most often described as

inspiratory, sharp, and abrupt in onset

When the vagus nerve is compressed, it causes a loss of peripheral venus tone. The result is the most common type of syncope?

vasovagal syncope

The hypothalamus can be considered the thermostat of the body. Damage to the hypothalamus can cause

hypothermia (fever)

A _____ fever is usally less than 101.5 F. Associated symptoms are cough, signs of Upper Respiratory infection (URI), may be systemic symptoms

viral infection

A _______ fever is often high temperature (greater than 101 F) and is more common in children.

bacterial infection

A fever helps to slow down growth of pathogens. Sustained high fever can lead to seizures

True

What is the most common causes that leads to snoring

Obesity

Snoring is a serious concern when it is associated with apnea (cessation of breathing)

True

Characteristics of sleep apnea are __________ and _________.

fatigue and daytime somnolence (daytime sleepiness)

Gastroesophageal reflux more than twice a week is a sign of

GERD

Which of the following is NOT a risk factor of GERD?

Being underweight