A&P II Final Exam - Multiple Choice Portion

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The body is attempting to maintain temperature homeostasis, this is an example of which core concept?

Pathways & Transformation of Energy & Matter

A neuron has an axon that allows it to send signals over a long distance, this is an example of which core concept?

Structure & Function

Humans at the equator have developed darker skin to protect them from the damaging effect of sunlight, this is an example of which core concept?

Evolution

The cardiovascular system and the respiratory system work together to deliver oxygen to the tissue of the body, this is an example of which core concept?

Systems

During transcription, mRNA is made from DNA. Then during translation, protein is made from that mRNA. This is an example of which core concept?

Information Flow, Exchange & Storage

How are the nervous system and endocrine system similar?

Cells of both the nervous system and the endocrine system release chemicals to communicate with cells.

What is a major function of the endocrine system?

The endocrine system releases hormones into the bloodstream to reach receptors on target cells.

All target cells:

have receptors to which hormones bind.

What type of hormone usually travels in the blood plasma bound to a protein?

hydrophobic hormones

What often serves as the second messenger when a hydrophilic amino-acid based hormone binds its receptor?

cAMP

Which of the following is a primary endocrine organ?

thyroid gland

Target cells make more receptors for a particular hormone when the level of that hormone declines in the blood stream. This process is known as:

upregulation.

Increasing levels of blood glucose stimulate the release of insulin. This type of stimulation is known as:

humoral stimulation.

When blood glucose levels increase, a hormone called insulin is released from endocrine cells in the pancreas. The role of insulin is to return blood glucose levels to normal. Which part of this negative feedback loop is the stimulus?

increasing blood glucose levels

With which gland does the hypothalamus have a close anatomical and physiological relationship?

pituitary gland

Hormones that control hormone secretion from other glands are known as:

tropic hormones.

What type of tissue makes up the adenohypophysis, or anterior pituitary gland?

glandular epithelium

Where is antidiuretic hormone (ADH, or vasopressin) made?

hypothalamus

What is the primary effect of antidiuretic hormone (ADH, or vasopressin)?

water retention by the kidneys

Which hormone controls the milk-let-down reflex?

oxytocin

What does thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH, or thyrotropin) target?

thyroid gland

A short-term effect of growth hormone is:

fat breakdown.

Which of the following is NOT a main effect of the thyroid hormones?

regulation of blood calcium levels

What element is necessary for the production of triiodothyronine (T) and thyroxine (T4)?

iodine

Edna complains of weight gain, cold intolerance, and low blood pressure. What disorder do her symptoms match?

hypothyroidism

Under normal conditions, what is the response to an increase in thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH)?

increase in thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) production

Harrie has fragile bones that easily fracture. Which hormone should be checked for normal levels?

parathyroid hormone (PTH)

Aldosterone regulates:

extracellular sodium and potassium ion levels.

Which hormone lowers blood glucose levels?

insulin

What is the main function of glucagon?

raise blood glucose

Coronary circulation involves the delivery of oxygenated blood to the:

heart.

Which of the following vessels carries oxygenated blood?

pulmonary vein

Blood in the right ventricle arrived from the:

right atrium.

Autorhythmicity in the heart is the responsibility of:

cardiac pacemaker cells.

What characteristic differentiates cardiac muscle cells from skeletal muscle cells?

intercalated discs

What ion movement changes the membrane potential in a contractile cell from negative to positive during the rapid depolarization phase?

influx of sodium ions

What normally serves as the pacemaker of the entire heart?

sinoatrial (SA) node

Which wave on the electrocardiogram (ECG) represents ventricular depolarization?

QRS wave

During what phase does blood flow from the ventricles into the pulmonary trunk and aorta?

ventricular ejection phase

What two values are needed in order to calculate cardiac output (CO) for a ventricle?

stroke volume (SV) and heart rate (HR)

Which vessels typically carry blood away from the heart?

arteries

Which vessels serve as the blood reservoirs of the body?

veins

The outward force that blood exerts on the walls of blood vessels is:

blood pressure.

Which blood vessels experience the sharpest decrease in blood pressure?

systemic arterioles

What two values are needed to calculate mean arterial pressure (MAP)?

diastolic pressure and systolic pressure

Archie took several deep breaths of air. By breathing deeply, what mechanism did he assist to return venous blood to his heart?

respiratory pump

What hormone is released to decrease blood pressure?

atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP)

Hypertension is defined as:

high blood pressure.

Which pressure pulls water into the capillary?

interstitial fluid hydrostatic pressure

Where in the circulatory system is the greatest volume of blood located at any point in time?

veins

How much blood does the average adult have?

5 L

What forms the majority of the blood?

plasma

When blood is centrifuged, what is found in the buffy coat?

Platelets and leukocytes

Which of the following is considered a normal blood pH?

7.40

What organs secretes most of the plasma proteins?

liver

What plasma protein is most important for the blood’s colloid osmotic pressure?

Albumin

The most abundant componet of plasma is:

water

What type of plasma protein are antibodies?

immune protein

Which statement best describes red blood cells?

Red blood cells possess a protein known as hemaglobin.

The function of red blood cells is to:

transport oxygen and carbon dioxide.

What cell gives rise to all formed elements?

hematopoietic stem cell (HSC)

What organ serves as the control center for the regulation of erythropoiesis?

kidney

What is the most common type of leukocyte in a healthy adult?

neutrophil

During a tapeworm infection, you would expect to see increased numbers of:

eosinophils.

Neutrophils are most effective at:

fighting a bacterial infection.

Through the microscope, you notice a very large leukocyte with a U-shaped nucleus but no granules. What type of leukocyte have you observed?

monocyte

Which type of leukocyte may produce antibodies?

lymphocyte

Where do T lymphocytes mature?

thymus gland

What feature do platelets possess?

plasma membrane

Platelets are cell fragments formed from:

megakaryocytes.

Which of the following is NOT a basic function of the lymphatic system?

regulation of calcium ion concentration in the blood

What is the main role of macrophages present in the lymphatic tissues?

phagocytosis

If the thymus shrank and stopped making hormones in a child, we would expect to see a decrease in the number of:

T lymphocytes (T cells).

Sheena's B lymphocytes (B cells) produced antibodies to protect her about 3-5 days after she was exposed to a virus. What type of immunity do antibodies provide?

acquired immunity

Which of the following is NOT a surface barrier serving as the first line of defense?

antibody

Which of the following is NOT a function of macrophages?

Macrophages activate T lymphocytes (T cells).

Which of the following is NOT a cardinal sign of inflammation?

cold

A patient has a high level of pyrogens, indicating that she:

has a fever.

Where do T cells become immunocompetent?

thymus

Activated helper T (TH) cells or cytotoxic T (TC) cell clones differentiate into:

effector cells and memory cells.

What protein, released by cytotoxic T (TC) cells, perforates a target cell's plasma membrane so that enzymes can enter and fragment the target cell's DNA?

perforins

Determine the first phase of the antibody-mediated immune response.

B cell clones recognize its specific antigen.

B cells develop and mature in the:

bone marrow.

Activated B cells differentiate into:

plasma cells and memory B cells.

Which antibody is the only one capable of crossing the placenta from a pregnant woma to her developing fetus?

IgG

Which of the following is NOT a function of antibodies?

phagocytosis

The primary immune response:

occurs after the first exposure to an antigen.

Vaccinations involve exposure to an antigen to elicit:

a primary immune response.

Which of the following confers passive immunity?

breast milk

Adaptive, or specific, immunity consists of antimicrobial proteins and certain cells that respond quickly to pathogens within the first 12 hours after exposure.

False

Which of the following is NOT part of the upper respiratory tract?

trachea

The respiratory system does NOT function in:

blood cell production.

Pulmonary gas exchange occurs in the:

respiratory zone.

What is the advantage of breathing through the nose rather than the mouth?

The nose warms, humidifies, and filters inhaled air.

Upon removal of the larynx, a person would no longer be able to:

produce sounds.

The mucosa of the carina contains sensory receptors that trigger:

coughing.

Why are the rings of cartilage surrounding the trachea C-shaped?

The C rings of cartilage allow the esophagus to expand during swallowing, allow the trachea to change diameter during breathing, and keep the trachea patent (open).

What does Boyle's law state about pressure and volume at a constant temperature and a constant pressure?

Pressure increases when volume decreases.

What happens to the lungs if intrapleural pressure equals or increases above atmospheric pressure?

collaspe

Air moves out of the lungs when the pressure inside the lungs is:

greater than atmospheric pressure.