Updated Pretest Dispensing

a. Auxiliary and/or cautionary label

1. Which label should be affixed to help ensure proper medication use, storage, and compliance with applicable requirements?

a. Auxiliary and/or cautionary label

b. BMR

c. Expiration date

d. Master Production Record

b. Pharmaceutical incompatibility

2. What term describes an undesirable reaction when two or more substances are combined, causing reduced potency or possible harm?

a. Chemical incompatibility

b. Pharmaceutical incompatibility

c. Physical incompatibility

d. Therapeutic incompatibility

b. Pharmacological

3. Which is not one of the three traditional types of pharmaceutical incompatibility: physical, chemical, therapeutic, or pharmacological?

a. Chemical

b. Pharmacological

c. Physical

d. Therapeutic

b. Oil mixed with water without an emulsifier

 Which situation is an example of immiscibility?

a. Alcohol mixed with water

b. Oil mixed with water without an emulsifier

c. Sodium chloride dissolved in water

d. Sucrose dissolved in syrup

c. Precipitation of calcium carbonate

5. What occurs when calcium gluconate is mixed with sodium bicarbonate?

a. Evolution of oxygen

b. Hydrolysis of calcium gluconate

c. Precipitation of calcium carbonate

d. Reduction of bicarbonate

d. Republic Act No. 9502

6. Which Philippine law improves access to cheaper and quality medicines?

a. Republic Act No. 10918

b. Republic Act No. 6675

c. Republic Act No. 9165

d. Republic Act No. 9502

b. Medication management

7. What is the pharmacist's primary role in clinical pharmacy practice?

a. Medical diagnosis

b. Medication management

c. Surgical assistance

d Therapeutic discussion

a. Medication order

8. What is the inpatient or institutional written instruction for a specific medication to be administered?

a. Medication order

b. Medication profile

c. Patient counseling record

d. Retail prescription

a. A writing before

9. The word prescription comes from the Latin prescription. What does it mean?

a. A writing before

b. Let the patient take

c. To compound carefully

d.To write afterward

b. Drug name, dose, route, and frequency

10. Which information is indispensable in every medication order?

a. Drug label net volume/weight

b. Drug name, dose, route, and frequency

c. Name of manufacturer and address

d. Storage and contraindications

a. Dangerous drugs

11. Which drug classification requires special licensing, strict monitoring, regulation, and controlled dispensing?

a. Dangerous drugs

b. Maintenance drugs

c. Nonprescription drugs

d. Nutritional supplements

b. Medical consultation

12. Which listed service is not ordinarily a pharmacist-led direct patient-care service?

a. Immunization

b. Medical consultation

c. Medication counseling

d. Medication review

a. Date

13. Which prescription element is important for determining validity and preventing inappropriate refilling?

a. Date

b. Drug color

c. Packaging

d. Pharmacy information

a. Inscription

14. Which prescription part lists the medication or ingredients to be supplied, prepared, or compounded?

a. Inscription

b. Signatura

c. Subscription

d. Superscription

c. The patient's biometric parameters, estimated renal and hepatic function, and the specific indication for therapy

15. During a prospective clinical review, which of the following sets of data most directly enables a pharmacist to determine if a prescribed dosage regimen is clinically appropriate for a specific patient?

a. Population-level pharmacokinetic parameters, including mean volume of distribution and elimination half-life

b. The medication's route of administration, formulation release mechanism, and y-site compatibilities

c. The patient's biometric parameters, estimated renal and hepatic function, and the specific indication for therapy

d. The therapeutic index of the drug and the established schedule for steady-state serum concentration monitoring

b. S2 license

16. Which PDEA registration is associated with a practitioner authorized to prescribe dangerous drugs?

a. S1 license

b. S2 license

c. S3 license

d. S4 license

c. S3 license

17. Which PDEA registration is associated with a retail pharmacy authorized to sell or dispense dangerous drugs?

a. S1 license

b. S2 license

c. S3 license

d. S4 license

a. Maximum Drug Retail Price

18. What does MDRP stand for?

a. Maximum Drug Retail Price

b. Mean Drug Retail Price

c. Minimum Drug Retail Price

d. Monitored Drug Reference Price

c. Pharmacokinetic interaction

19. Which incompatibility or interaction occurs when one drug changes the absorption, distribution, metabolism, or excretion of another?

a. Medication adherence

b. Pharmaceutical equivalence

c. Pharmacokinetic interaction

d. Therapeutic duplication

a. Chemical decomposition

20. A light-exposed nitroglycerin preparation changes color. What does this most likely indicate?

a. Chemical decomposition

b. Complex formation

c. Physical adsorption

d. Therapeutic antagonism

b. Physical incompatibility with precipitation

21. A compatible amphotericin B formulation becomes cloudy immediately after it is mixed with an unverified diluent. What should the pharmacist suspect?

a. Pharmacodynamic synergism

b. Physical incompatibility with precipitation

c. Therapeutic duplication

d. Volatilization

d. Temperature variation

22. Which listed factor can promote phase separation in emulsions?

a. Enzyme inhibition

b. Gas evolution

c. Ionization

d. Temperature variation

c. AO 62

23. Which administrative order implements prescribing requirements under the Generics Act?

a. AO 55

b. AO 56

c. AO 62

d. AO 63

d. AO 63

24. Which administrative order implements dispensing requirements under the Generics Act?

a. AO 55

b. AO 56

c. AO 62

d. AO 63

a. Correct

25. A prescription writes the generic name before the brand name. How should it be classified?

a. Correct

b. Erroneous

c. Impossible

d. Violative

b. Pharmacodynamic interaction

26. What interaction is expected when salbutamol is used with Lagundi for a similar respiratory therapeutic effect?

a. Chemical incompatibility

b. Pharmacodynamic interaction

c. Pharmacokinetic interaction

d. Physical incompatibility

c. Cetirizine

27. Which listed medicine may have enhanced sedative effects when taken with alcohol?

a. Amoxicillin

b. Calcium carbonate

c. Cetirizine

d. Topical zinc oxide

b. Type B

28. An allergic reaction to penicillin is classified under the traditional ADR scheme as what type?

a. Type A

b. Type B

c. Type C

d. Type D

b. Antagonism

29. What interaction occurs between an opioid agonist and naloxone?

a. Addition

b. Antagonism

c. Potentiation

d. Synergism

c. It increases

30. What happens to bleeding risk when warfarin is taken with aspirin?

a. It becomes clinically irrelevant

b. It decreases

c. It increases

d. It remains unchanged

b. Erroneous

31. A prescription places the brand name above the generic name. How is this categorized under traditional Generics Act teaching?

a. Correct

b. Erroneous

c. Impossible

d. Violative

b. Do not dispense and refer the patient back to the prescriber

32. What should a pharmacist do with a violative prescription under the traditional AO 63 framework?

a. Dispense without changes

b. Do not dispense and refer the patient back to the prescriber

c. Replace the drug independently

d. Retain it without explanation

d. Two years

33. How long should the retail Prescription Book be retained according to the commonly taught Philippine requirement?

a. Five years

b. One year

c. Three years

d. Two years

d. Reduced anticoagulant effect and possible thrombotic risk

34. A patient taking warfarin self-starts ginseng. What important risk should the pharmacist consider?

a. Improved anticoagulation without risk

b. No possible interaction

c. Predictable severe hypoglycemia

d. Reduced anticoagulant effect and possible thrombotic risk

c. Sulfisoxazole

35. Which drug given late in pregnancy can displace bilirubin and increase kernicterus risk in a neonate?

a. Chloramphenicol

b. Ciprofloxacin

c. Sulfisoxazole

d. Tetracycline

b. Increased theophylline concentration and possible toxicity

36. Cimetidine inhibits the metabolism of theophylline. What outcome is expected?

a. Decreased theophylline concentration

b. Increased theophylline concentration and possible toxicity

c. No change in theophylline exposure

d. Reduced cimetidine absorption

b. Type B

37. Aplastic anemia after chloramphenicol is unpredictable and not dose-related. How is it classified?

a. Type A

b. Type B

c. Type C

d. Type D

d. Vancomycin

38. Red Man Syndrome is most associated with rapid infusion of which medicine?

a. Clindamycin

b. Gentamicin

c. Penicillin G

d. Vancomycin

c. Eutexia

39. Camphor and menthol liquefy when mixed at room temperature. What is this called?

a. Deliquescence

b. Efflorescence

c. Eutexia

d. Hygroscopy

b. Oxidation

40. Pink discoloration in an epinephrine solution indicates which reaction?

a. Hydrolysis

b. Oxidation

c. Racemization

d. Reduction

c. Physical incompatibility

41. A gel-like mass forms when acacia is added to an iron-salt solution. What type of incompatibility is illustrated?

a. Chemical decomposition

b. Evolution of gas

c. Physical incompatibility

d. Therapeutic incompatibility

a. Deliquescence

42. KOH pellets absorb enough atmospheric moisture to dissolve. What property is this?

a. Deliquescence

b. Efflorescence

c. Hygroscopy without dissolution

d. Polymorphism

c. IgE-mediated immediate

43. Which description matches Type I hypersensitivity?

a. Cell-mediated delayed reaction

b. Cytotoxic reaction

c. IgE-mediated immediate

d. Immune-complex reaction

d. Category E

44. A medication error reaches a patient and causes temporary harm requiring treatment, but not hospitalization. Which NCC MERP category applies?

a. Category B

b. Category C

c. Category D

d. Category E

b. Category B

45. An insulin error is detected before the medicine reaches the patient. Which NCC MERP category applies?

a. Category A

b. Category B

c. Category D

d. Category E

b. Category C

46. An antibiotic is given at the wrong time, reaches the patient, but causes no harm and requires no monitoring. Which category applies?

a. Category B

b. Category C

c. Category D

d. Category E

b. Category D

47. An excessive warfarin dose reaches the patient and additional INR monitoring is required, but no harm occurs. Which category applies?

a. Category C

b. Category D

c. Category E

d. Category F

b. Take it with a high-fat meal

48. What dietary advice improves oral absorption of griseofulvin?

a. Avoid all dietary fat

b. Take it with a high-fat meal

c. Take with antacid

d. Take with plain water on an empty stomach

a. Epinephrine and histamine

49. Which pair best illustrates physiological antagonism?

a. Epinephrine and histamine

b. Naloxone and morphine

c. Protamine and heparin

d. Tetracycline and antacid

b. One tablet three times daily after meals and at bedtime

50. How should 'Gaviscon 1 tablet tid pc and hs' be interpreted?

a. Once daily before breakfast

b. One tablet three times daily after meals and at bedtime

c. Three times daily before meals

d. Twice daily with meals

b. Glucuronidation

51. Gray Baby Syndrome reflects neonatal immaturity of which pathway?

a. Acetylation

b. Glucuronidation

c. Hydrolysis

d. Sulfation

c. Reduced digoxin concentration and possible therapeutic failure

52. What can happen when St. John's wort is taken with digoxin?

a. Increased digoxin concentration

b. No clinically relevant effect

c. Reduced digoxin concentration and possible therapeutic failure

d. Severe hypoglycemia

b. Naloxone and morphine

53. Which pair represents pharmacodynamic antagonism?

a. Ciprofloxacin and dairy

b. Naloxone and morphine

c. Tetracycline and antacid

d. Warfarin and aspirin

d. Reduced anticoagulant effect and possible clotting risk over time

54. Phenytoin induction may have what effect on warfarin therapy?

a. No INR change

b. Persistent increase in anticoagulation

c. Prevention of all bleeding

d. Reduced anticoagulant effect and possible clotting risk over time

b. Contact dermatitis from poison ivy

55. Which scenario illustrates Type IV delayed hypersensitivity?

a. Anaphylaxis after penicillin

b. Contact dermatitis from poison ivy

c. Hemolytic anemia from methyldopa

d. Serum sickness from sulfonamide

d. Yellow copy

56. In the traditional triplicate dangerous-drug prescription system taught in Philippine pharmacy law, which copy is issued to the patient?

a. Blue copy

b. Red copy

c. White copy

d. Yellow copy

d. Violative

57. A prescription is marked 'NO SUBSTITUTION.' How should it be classified under traditional Generics Act teaching?

a. Correct

b. Erroneous

c. Impossible

d. Violative

a. Five years

58. How long must the Poison Book be retained according to the commonly taught requirement?

a. Five years

b. One year

c. Three years

d. Two years

b. Acarbose inhibits alpha-glucosidase needed to split sucrose

59. Why is sucrose unsuitable for treating hypoglycemia in a patient taking acarbose?

a. Acarbose accelerates sucrose excretion

b. Acarbose inhibits alpha-glucosidase needed to split sucrose

c. Sucrose chemically precipitates acarbose

d. Sucrose triggers insulin-independent toxicity

d. The combination can cause dangerous hyperkalemia

60. Why should a patient taking spironolactone avoid excessive bananas or other high-potassium foods?

a. Bananas decrease spironolactone absorption

b. Bananas produce false glucose results

c. Spironolactone causes banana allergy

d. The combination can cause dangerous hyperkalemia

a. Acute kidney injury

61. What is the key concern when ibuprofen is added to losartan and hydrochlorothiazide?

a. Acute kidney injury

b. Reduced platelet count

c. Serotonin syndrome

d. Severe hypoglycemia

c. Reduced blood-pressure control

62. What may occur when mefenamic acid is added to amlodipine therapy?

a. Enhanced antihypertensive effect

b. Increased antibiotic absorption

c. Reduced blood-pressure control

d. Severe bradycardia

c. Subscription

63. A prescription states 'Dispense 120 mL.' In which traditional part is this instruction found?

a. Inscription

b. Signatura

c. Subscription

d. Superscription

b. Shake well before use

64. Which auxiliary instruction is essential for an oral suspension?

a. For external use only

b. Shake well before use

c. Swallow whole

d. Use only at bedtime

b. 10 mL

65. A child needs 250 mg. The product contains 125 mg per 5 mL. What volume is required?

a. 5 mL

b. 10 mL

c. 15 mL

d. 20 mL

c. 14 capsules

66. The directions read 'one capsule by mouth twice daily for seven days.' How many capsules are needed?

a. 7 capsules

b. 10 capsules

c. 14 capsules

d. 21 capsules

d. Triturate each ingredient separately with an inert absorbent before combining

67. How should powders that form a eutectic mixture be prepared?

a. Add water before mixing

b. Heat both ingredients

c. Triturate both together immediately

d. Triturate each ingredient separately with an inert absorbent before combining

a. Double-displacement

68. What commonly causes precipitation when two ionic solutions are mixed?

a. Double-displacement

b. Adsorption

c. Sublimation

d. Volatilization

b. Efflorescence

69. Which physical instability describes loss of water of crystallization by a hydrated salt exposed to dry air?

a. Deliquescence

b. Efflorescence

c. Eutectic formation

d. Hygroscopy