Bio 217 Unit 4 Diseases

What type of organism causes MRSA skin infections?

A) Virus

B) Gram-positive coccus

C) Gram-negative rod

D) Fungus

B) Gram-positive coccus

Which of the following best describes the arrangement of MRSA bacteria?

A) Single cells

B) Chains

C) Grapelike clusters

D) Biofilms

C) Grapelike clusters

Which of the following is a common symptom of MRSA skin infections?

A) Fever

B) Sneezing

C) Nausea

D) Blurred vision

A) Fever

How does MRSA usually enter the body to cause skin infections?

A) Through the lungs

B) Through minor breaks in the skin, such as cuts or abrasions

C) By drinking contaminated water

D) Through sexual contact

B) Through minor breaks in the skin, such as cuts or abrasions

Which of the following antibiotics can be used to treat MRSA skin infections?

A) Penicillin

B) Vancomycin

C) Amoxicillin

D) Erythromycin

B) Vancomycin

The causative agent of measles belongs to which viral family?

a) Togaviridae

b) Paramyxoviridae

c) Herpesviridae

d) Flaviviridae

b) Paramyxoviridae

What makes measles virus harmful or virulent?

a) it makes a toxin that kills body cells 

b) it breaks down body tissue with special enzymes 

c) it can live for a long time in the environment as spores

d) it weakens the immune system by destroying immune cells 

d) It weakens the immune system by destroying immune cells

Which vaccine would be used for rubella and measles 

a) MMR

b) ProQuad

c) RIV

d) A and B 

d) A and B 

Which of the following is a unique feature of measles but not rubella?

a) Pink, mild rash

b) Koplik’s spots inside the mouth

c) Swollen lymph nodes behind the ears

d) Mild fever

b) Koplik’s spots inside the mouth

How many susceptible people, on average, would one infected person with measles infect? (Graph)

a) 3

b) 4

c) 20

d) 15

 

d) 15

All of the following apply to both Impetigo caused by S.aureus and S.pyogenes except…

a) Transmitted by both direct and indirect contact

b) Can be prevented with good hygiene practice

c) Have a higher incidence in tropical areas

d) Have coagulase as a virulence factor

d) Have coagulase as a virulence factor

Which of the following is NOT a possible treatment for cellulitis caused by the organism S. Pyogenes?

a) Surgery

b) Oral Antibiotic

c) Topical ointment

d) Intravenous Antibiotic 

c) Topical ointment

Which statement best describes the difference between impetigo and cellulitis in terms of tissue involvement?

a)  Impetigo affects the superficial layer of the skin, while cellulitis involves the dermal layer and subcutaneous tissues

b) Both impetigo and cellulitis affect only the outermost layer of skin

c) Cellulitis affects the superficial layer of the skin, while impetigo involves the dermal layer and subcutaneous tissues

d) Impetigo and cellulitis both involve subcutaneous tissue

A) Impetigo affects the superficial layer of the skin, while cellulitis involves the dermal layer and subcutaneous tissues

What is the most common way impetigo spreads from person to person?

a) Through contaminated food or water

b) Through direct contact, contaminated objects (fomites), or mechanical vectors

c) Through airborne respiratory droplets

d) Through sexual contact

B) Through direct contact, contaminated objects (fomites), or mechanical vectors

Streptococcus pyogenes is more often the cause of impetigo in _____

a) Older children

b) Teenagers

c) Newborns

d) Adults

 

c) Newborns

After a person recovers from chickenpox, how does the Varicella-zoster virus (VZV) remain in the body and later cause shingles?

a) It integrates into host DNA and replicates continuously in epithelial cells

b) It persists in sensory ganglia in a latent state and reactivates under certain conditions

c) It hides in red blood cells and reemerges during stress

d) It forms spores that can survive for decades in neural tissue

b) It persists in sensory ganglia in a latent state and reactivates under certain conditions

What type of infection is Chickenpox?

a) Localized infection

b) Systemic infection

c) Chronic infection

d) Acute infection

b) Systemic infection

What type of virus causes Smallpox? 

a) Single- Stranded DNA virus

b) Double- Stranded DNA virus

c) Single- Stranded RNA virus

d) Double- Stranded RNA virus

b) Double- Stranded DNA virus

Shingles, caused by the reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus, primarily affects which of the following areas after the virus remains dormant in specific nerve tissues?

A) The respiratory tract, leading to systemic infection via inhalation.

B) A localized area of the skin along a single dermatome, causing a painful rash.

C) The bloodstream, resulting in widespread infection similar to chickenpox.

D) The cerebrospinal fluid, leading to symptoms of meningitis.

B) A localized area of the skin along a single dermatome, causing a painful rash.

What is the portal of entry for Chickenpox?

a) Skin

b) Gastrointestinal tract

c) Respiratory tract

d) Urogenital tract

c) Respiratory tract

What is meningitis?

A. Inflammation of the lungs
B. Infection of the skin
C. Infection that causes inflammation of the membranes surrounding the brain and spinal cord
D. Infection of the bloodstream

C. Infection that causes inflammation of the membranes surrounding the brain and spinal cord

How can meningitis be transmitted?

A. Sharing drinks and kissing
B. Insect bites
C. Contaminated food only
D. Touching contaminated surfaces 

A. Sharing drinks and kissing

Which of the following is a typical symptom of meningitis in newborns?

A. Constant crying and a bulging soft spot on the head
B. Stiff neck and light sensitivity
C. Seizures and rash
D. Vomiting and confusion

A. Constant crying and a bulging soft spot on the head

What is a common treatment for bacterial meningitis?

A. Antifungal medication
B. Pain relievers only
C. Antibiotics and fluid management
D. Antiviral therapy

C. Antibiotics and fluid management

How does someone contract the Zika virus?

a) Contaminated food 

b) Polluted air 

c) Touching an open wound with dirty hands 

d) Aedes mosquito bite 

d) Aedes mosquito bite 

If contracted during pregnancy, what MIGHT the baby be born with?

a) Baby is born with microcephaly, a small head 

b) Baby has less than four limbs 

c) Baby cannot breathe on its own

d) Baby is born perfectly healthy. 

a) Baby is born with microcephaly, a small head 

What is the Zika Virus?

a) A virus which blocks lipid production 

b) A single stranded RNA virus from the genus flavivirus 

c) A single stranded mRNA virus  

d) The result of a bird flu outbreak 

b) A single stranded RNA virus from the genus flavivirus 

What are additional way(s) (other than mosquito bites) that people can be exposed to the Zika virus.

a) Transmission from an infected pregnant woman to her fetus (mother-to-child).

b) Sexual transmission through unprotected intercourse.

c) Blood transfusion from an infected donor.

d) All of the Above 

d) All of the Above 

How long does it take for symptoms of Zika Virus to show?

A.) 3 weeks 

B.) Same day

C.) 2-7 Days 

D.) 1 month 

C.) 2-7 Days 

Subacute encephalitis is often a delay of what type of primary infection? 

a) Varicella 

b) Measles

c) Herpes

d) Influenza

b) Measles

What treatment(s) can cure subacute encephalitis caused by measles? 

a) Antibiotics

b) Antiviral drugs

c) Antiparastic drugs 

d) All of the above.

e) None of the above.

e) None of the above.

Which of the following statements is true regarding subacute encephalitis caused by toxoplasma gondii? 

a) The infection is highly contagious to other people after initial exposure. 

b) Transmission occurs via indirect contact from contaminated meat or cat feces. 

c) Once transmission occurs via direct or droplet contact, the virus may remain dormant in the brain for years before reactivation. 

d) Toxoplasma gondii’s primary reservoir are humans, who directly transmit the infection to others through direct contact before it develops into subacute encephalitis. 

 

b) Transmission occurs via indirect contact from contaminated meat or cat feces. 

Which population is most vulnerable to developing subacute encephalitis caused by toxoplasma gondii?

a) Healthy adults 

b) Immunocompromised individuals 

c) Elderly 

d) Children 

b) Immunocompromised individuals 

What is the correct order of the symptom stages?

a) Death, Uncontrollable movements, Personality changes and Paralysis

b) Paralysis, Personality changes, Death and Uncontrollable movements 

c) Personality changes, Uncontrollable movements, Paralysis and Death

d) Personality changes, Paralysis, Uncontrollable movements and Death

 

c) Personality changes, Uncontrollable movements, Paralysis and Death

What did Louis Pasteur discover or do regarding rabies?

A) He showed rabies could not spread from person to person

B) He developed the first vaccine for rabies before viruses were known

C) He discovered the first virus under a microscope

D) He proved rabies was caused by bacteria

B) He developed the first vaccine for rabies before viruses were known

What makes the rabies virus different from some other viruses?

A) It can only infect liver cells in humans

B) It only targets salivary glands

C) It infects only intestinal and nerve cells in primates

D) It can infect many types of cells in all mammals

D) It can infect many types of cells in all mammals

What effect does the rabies virus have on infected cells?

A) It causes cells to stick together and partially break apart

B) It makes cells shrink and break apart completely

C) It causes cells to form inclusion bodies called Negri bodies

D) It makes cells combine together into one large cell

C) It causes cells to form inclusion bodies called Negri bodies

Which statement about the rabies virus is true?

A) Rabies is a viral infection that has a high death rate

B) Rabies is caused by bacteria that can be treated with antibiotics

C) Rabies only causes flu like symptoms 

D) Rabies is not spread from animals to humans

A) Rabies is a viral infection that has a high death rate

A person is bitten by a wandering dog on the street. Which immediate step is most important?

A) Wait for symptoms to appear before seeking medical attention.

B) Begin antibiotics to prevent possible infection.

C) Wash the wound thoroughly and seek medical attention.

D) Call animal control.

C) Wash the wound thoroughly and seek medical attention.

How is Clostridium tetani most commonly transmitted to humans? 

a) Inhalation of spores from contaminated dust

b) Person-to-person contact

c) Introduction of spores into the body through deep puncture or contaminated wounds

d) Ingestion of contaminated water

c) Introduction of spores into the body through deep puncture or contaminated wounds

Which of the following is a mode of transmission for Clostridium botulinum 

a. Ingestion of food containing preformed toxins

b. Person-to-person contact

c. Inhalation of respiratory droplets 

d. Sexual transmission 

a. Ingestion of food containing preformed toxins

Which is a symptom of botulism? 

a) Memory loss

b) Dizziness

c) Difficulty swallowing 

d) Both B and C

d) Both B and C

A patient comes in with a locked jaw, stiffness, and muscle spasms. From the following, what is the most likely diagnosis? 

a) Botulism

b) MRSA

c) Rabies

d) Tetanus

d) Tetanus

In antimicrobial therapy, a “broad-spectrum” drug is one that:

a) Is effective only against Gram-positive bacteria

b) Targets a narrow range of microbes, minimizing the impact on normal flora

c) Can act against both Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria, making it useful when the pathogen is unknown

d) Never requires follow-up culture or sensitivity testing once therapy begins

c) Can act against both Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria, making it useful when the pathogen is unknown

Malaria is caused by Plasmodium and spread by Anopheles mosquitoes. It causes symptoms that come and go in a regular pattern. Which of the following best describes the common pattern of symptoms during malaria?

a) Persistent low-grade fever, diarrhea

b) Sudden high fever, profuse sweating, followed by a drop in temperature and fatigue.

c) Mild fever, dry cough, and sore throat 

d) Cyclic episodes of chills, fever, and sweating

d) Cyclic episodes of chills, fever, and sweating

What organism causes malaria?

a) Bacteria

b) Virus

c) Protozoan (Plasmodium)

d) Fungus

c) Protozoan (Plasmodium)

There are five Plasmodium species, which one is responsible for most malaria deaths?

a) P. vivax

b) P. malariae

c) P. falciparum

d) P. ovale

c) P. falciparum

Which drug is most effective in areas where malaria is resistant to chloroquine?


a. Chloroquine phosphate


b. Artemisinin-based combination therapy (ACT)


c. Aspirin


d. Penicillin

b. Artemisinin-based combination therapy (ACT)


Which of these are not used to culture/diagnose malaria?

A. Serological methods 

B. Urine culture

C. Blood smear

D. PCR in cases where protozoa not detectable in blood

 

B.Urine culture

What is the main purpose of antiretroviral therapy?

A. To completely cure the patient of HIV. 

B. To boost the immune system, avoiding the need of future medications. 

C. To stop the virus from growing and prevent it from progressing to AIDS.  

D. To replace the infected HIV cells with healthy stem cells.

C. To stop the virus from growing and prevent it from progressing to AIDS.  

Which of the following best explains how antiviral drugs used in the treatment of HIV infections work?

a. They destroy the host cell to stop viral reproduction.

b. They act as broad-spectrum agents that kill all viruses on contact.

c. They increase the body’s normal flora to compete with viral particles.

d. They target viral processes such as replication, transcription, or entry into the host cell.

d. They target viral processes such as replication, transcription, or entry into the host cell.

Which statement best explains how HIV affects lymphocytes?

a. HIV infects B lymphocytes, preventing them from producing antibodies.

b. HIV infects and gradually destroys helper T lymphocytes (CD4⁺ cells), weakening the body’s immune defenses.

c. HIV infects cytotoxic T lymphocytes, causing excessive inflammation and tissue damage.

d. HIV infects natural killer (NK) cells, increasing immune activity against bacteria.

b. HIV infects and gradually destroys helper T lymphocytes (CD4⁺ cells), weakening the body’s immune defenses.

Which of the following is a recommended method to reduce the risk of HIV infection?

a. Avoiding physical contact with anyone who has HIV

b. Using barrier precautions like condoms and not sharing needles.

c. Taking antibiotics after sexual activity

d. Getting vaccinated with the current HIV vaccine

b. Using barrier precautions like condoms and not sharing needles.

Which of the following is the most likely reason a person recently exposed to HIV might test negative on an initial antibody test?

a. The body has not yet produced detectable levels of antibodies or viral antigens.

b. The person is naturally immune to HIV.

c. The test only detects bacterial infections, not viral infections.

d. The virus has mutated to a completely different family.

a. The body has not yet produced detectable levels of antibodies or viral antigens.

Which symptom of subacute endocarditis occurs over time? 

a. Seizures

b. Chest pain

c. Clubbed fingers/ toes

d. Rashes 

c. Clubbed fingers/ toes

Which heart valve does endocarditis affect? 

a. Aortic

b. Tricupsid

c. Mitral

d. Pulmonary

e. A & C

e. A & C

Acute endocarditis can lead to which of the following:

a. Diabetes

b. Asthma

c. Heart attack

d. Chicken pox

c. Heart attack

Endocarditis is the ___ of the inner lining of the heart.

a. Inflammation

b. Thinning

c. Infection

d. Hardening

a. Inflammation

Modes of transmission for endocarditis include:

a. Poor dental hygiene

b. Contaminated intravenous drug use

c. Sepsis and other infections

d. All of the above

d. All of the above

Which virus is responsible for causing Infectious Mononucleosis?

A) Francisella tularensis

B) Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)

C) Borrelia burgdorferi

D) Ribavirin

B) Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)

How is Tularemia primarily transmitted to humans?

A) Direct contact with saliva

B) Airborne droplets from coughing

C) Tick bites, aerosols, and contact with infected animals

D) Sharing utensils and drinks

C) Tick bites, aerosols, and contact with infected animals

Which of the following is NOT commonly associated with Hemorrhagic Fever Diseases?

A) Bleeding under the skin

B) Ring rash at the site of a tick bite

C) Muscle aches and dizziness

D) Headache and fatigue

B) Ring rash at the site of a tick bite

What is the most effective method to prevent the spread of Infectious Mononucleosis?

A) Vaccination

B) Antiviral medications

C) Avoiding the sharing of utensils, drinks, and saliva contact

D) Frequent hand washing

C) Avoiding the sharing of utensils, drinks, and saliva contact

Which symptom is a distinguishing feature of Lyme Disease?

A) Gray-white throat exudate

B) Enlarged spleen and liver

C) Ring rash at the tick bite site with a pale center

D) Sudden leukocytosis

C) Ring rash at the tick bite site with a pale center

Which microorganism is the most common cause of community-acquired pneumonia?
a. Streptococcus pneumoniae
b. Legionella pneumophila
c. Staphylococcus aureus
d. Chlamydia pneumoniae

a. Streptococcus pneumoniae

What groups tend to be more vulnerable to pneumonia? 
a. Older adults
b. Young children
c. Those with weaker immune systems
d. All of the above

d. All of the above

What is not a correct treatment for viral pneumonia?
a. Antibiotics
b. Breathing treatments
c. Anti - viral meds
d. Rest and Fluids

a. Antibiotics

Which key effect does the polysaccharide capsule of Streptococcus pneumoniae have that contributes to its virulence in pneumonia?
a. Enhances mucus clearance 
b. Produces fever-reducing enzymes
c. Impairs phagocytes
d. Increases ciliary movement in the airways

c. Impairs phagocytes

What should you do to lower your chances of contracting pneumonia?
a. Avoid all people
b. Get vaccinated
c. Smoke as usual
d. Take vitamins

b. Get vaccinated

What are the different types of Influenza? Select all that apply.

a. Type A

b. Type B

c. Type C

d. Type D

Type A

Type B

Type C

What is a pathogen?

a. A harmless microbe found in the environment

b. A microorganism or biological agent that can cause disease

c. A type of white blood cell that fights infection

d. A chemical substance used to treat illness

b. A microorganism or biological agent that can cause disease

A client presents with fever, sore through, muscle aches, and a runny rose. The nurse suspects influenza. Which diagnostic test should the nurse anticipate?

a. Stool culture

b. Urine antigen test

c. Nasal or throat swab for molecular or antigen testing

d. Blood glucose test

c. Nasal or throat swab for molecular or antigen testing

Who would not be considered a high risk patient? Select all that apply.

a. A 15 year old boy with epilepsy 

b. A 72 year old geriatric patient with dementia 

c. A 7 month old newborn with diabetes 

d. A 9 month pregnant female with Asthma. 

a. A 15 year old boy with epilepsy 

At what age are annual flu shots recommended?

a. 3 years or older

b. Immediately after birth

c. 6 months or older

d. 50 years or older

c. 6 months or older

Which of the following is considered communicable?

a. Tuberculosis

b. Whooping Cough

c. Respiratory Syncytial Virus

d. All of the above

d. All of the above

Which of the following statements is TRUE about RSV?

a. Has a waxy capsule

b. Invades and replicates in macrophages

c.  Causes syncytia in the respiratory tract

d. Uses the skin as Portal of Entry

c.  Causes syncytia in the respiratory tract

What are distinct signs of Pertussis?

a. Nausea and chest pain

b. Headaches and vertigo 

c. Paroxysm Coughing and “Whooping” 

d. Dyspnea and Pharyngitis 

c. Paroxysm Coughing and “Whooping” 

Why is Tuberculosis considered a “True Pathogen”? 

a. Because it can live within a host for months at a time without causing symptoms.

b. Because it can cause disease in a person with a completely healthy immune system.  

c. Because those with compromised immune systems are more susceptible to contract it.

d. Because it only becomes dangerous when it starts mutating inside the host.

b. Because it can cause disease in a person with a completely healthy immune system.  

What are Tubercles?

a. Granulomas with a center core of TB

b. Calcium Deposits formed in the respiratory tract

c. Large multinucleated cells 

d. An endotoxin that destroys cilia in respiratory tract

a. Granulomas with a center core of TB

Which of the following pathogens produces a heat-stable enterotoxin and causes rapid-onset vomiting without fever?

A. Bacillus cereus (diarrheal type)
B. Clostridium perfringens
C. Staphylococcus aureus
D. Giardia lamblia

C. Staphylococcus aureus

Which Bacillus cereus toxin is associated with reheated rice and causes vomiting within 1–5 hours?

A. Diarrheal toxin
B. Neurotoxin
C. Emetic toxin
D. Endotoxin

C. Emetic toxin

Which pathogen is most likely to cause greasy, foul-smelling stools and bloating after exposure to untreated water during camping?

A. Cyclospora cayetanensis
B. Giardia lamblia
C. Entamoeba histolytica
D. EAEC

B. Giardia lamblia

Which chronic diarrhea pathogen is transmitted via fresh produce and may relapse for weeks?

A. EAEC
B. Cyclospora cayetanensis
C. Giardia lamblia
D. Clostridium perfringens

B. Cyclospora cayetanensis

Which of the following is a public health recommendation for preventing foodborne and diarrheal illness?

A. Take antibiotics after every meal
B. Leave leftovers at room temperature
C. Wash hands before handling food
D. Drink untreated water from natural sources

C. Wash hands before handling food

A patient reports increasing tooth sensitivity and pain. Examination shows visible cavities and damage extending into deeper layers of the tooth near blood vessels and nerves.

Which pathogen is most commonly associated with this type of oral infection?

a. Streptococcus mutans

b. Escherichia coli

c. Staphylococcus aureus

d. Bacillus

a. Streptococcus mutans

What are some diseases that can be caused by gum disease? 

a. Coronary disease and Diabetes 

b. Cognitive disease 

c. None of the above 

d. Answers A and B

d. Answers A and B

Which of the following best describes the disease caused by the mumps virus?

a. A bacterial infection that causes skin rashes and a sore throat

b. A viral infection that causes painful swelling of the salivary glands

c. A fungal infection that leads to lung inflammation

d. A parasitic disease that affects red blood cells

b. A viral infection that causes painful swelling of the salivary glands

A 14-year-old patient is experiencing a sharp, burning pain in his abdomen. He explains that the pain increases at night and after meals. What type of bacteria is most likely to cause these symptoms?

a) E.Coli, a gram-negative bacillus

b) H.Pylori, a curved gram-negative rod

c) S. Aureus, a gram-positive cocci

d) C. Difficile, a gram-positive rod

b) H.Pylori, a curved gram-negative rod

A patient uses an acid-suppressant medication to help relieve gastritis caused by an infection of H. Pylori. What does this indicate about the pH levels of the patient’s stomach?

a. The pH is too high; therefore, the acid-suppressant medication will decrease stomach acid to neutralize it

b. The pH is too low; therefore, the acid-suppressant medication will increase stomach acid to neutralize it

c. The pH is too low; therefore, the acid-suppressant medication will decrease stomach acid to neutralize it

d. The pH is too high; therefore, the acid-suppressant medication will  increase stomach acid to neutralize it

c. The pH is too low; therefore, the acid-suppressant medication will decrease stomach acid to neutralize it

What part of the body does a gastrointestinal disease affect?

A) Brain

B) Lungs

C) Stomach and intestines

D) Skin

C) Stomach and intestines

Which of the following can cause food poisoning?

A) Clean water

B) Fresh fruit

C) Harmful bacteria

D) Exercise

C) Harmful bacteria

What is a common symptom of a gastrointestinal infection?

A) Sneezing

B) Diarrhea

C) Rash

D) Headache

B) Diarrhea

How can you help prevent gastrointestinal diseases?

A) Skip meals

B) Eat only meat

C) Wash your hands

D) Avoid exercise

C) Wash your hands

Which microorganism is often linked to stomach ulcers?

A) Influenza virus

B) Helicobacter pylori

C) Candida albicans

D) Streptococcus pneumoniae

B) Helicobacter pylori