pharm final from quizlet

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124 Terms

1
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What is the science dealing with the properties of drugs and their effects on living systems?
pharmacology
2
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What is the branch of pharmacology that deals directly with the effectiveness and safety of drugs in the clinical settings?
clinical pharmacology
3
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What is the amount of drug given at one time?
dose
4
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What is the amount of drug given (dose), the route of administration, the interval between doses, and the duration of therapy
dosage
5
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What is efficacy?
effectiveness- the ability of a drug to control or cure an illness
6
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What is the lowest concentration that produces the desired effect (concentrations below this are "subtherapeutic")?
minimum effective concentration (MEC)
7
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What is the dose that was effective in 50% of animals?
ED50
8
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Was is the the range of drug concentrations associated with efficacy and not toxicity?
therapeutic range
9
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What is a relative measure of biological activity, amount of drug needed to achieve a specified biological effect?
potency
10
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What are proprietary names?
unique name that the manufacturer gives to its specific brand of drug (ex: Lysodren)
11
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What is the difference in type A and type B adverse reactions?
type A: can be anticipated based on the known mechanism of the drug and it is usually dose dependent
type B: an adverse event that is idiosyncratic, unpredictable, and often nondose-dependent
12
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Describe an endogenous agonist.
a substance that induces physiological activity; it is naturally produced by the body
13
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Describe an antagonist.
a substance that blocks the action of an agonist
14
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Describe a competitive antagonist.
binds to the same site as an agonist but doesn't activate it therefore blocking the agonist action
15
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Describe a partial agonist.
induce physiologic action like an agonist but don't have as strong of any effect (not as strong as pure but stronger than agonist-antagonist)
16
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Describe a pure agonist.
induces physiologic action but is more high power because it covers more types of receptors
17
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Describe an agonist-antagonist.
the drug may have agonist activity at one receptor site while simultaneously producing an antagonist activity at another site
18
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Where does drug metabolization primarily occur?
the liver
19
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What is the first pass effect? How does it affect drug doses?
this is when a large portion of orally administered drug is inactivated by the liver before it enters circulation; oral doses will usually be higher than injectable doses
20
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What is the correct way to write out a dose in tenths?
0.1- with a leading zero before the decimal and no zeros after the tenth (even extra zeros)
21
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If a product is an ethical product, what does that mean?
these products are only sold through licensed veterinarians; OTC; no legal basis
22
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Who regulates pesticides (like flea and tick products)?
the EPA as long as they are topical
23
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Who regulates biologics (vaccines and such)?
the USDA
24
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Who regulates controlled substances?
DEA
25
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Who regulates food, drugs, etc.?
FDA
26
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Refills for non-controlled prescription drugs may be authorized by the veterinarian for a maximum of \_____ from the original date on the prescription.
12 months
27
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There is a \_______ refill limit for controlled prescription drugs.
6 month
28
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For non-food animals, do you have to use a vet product to treat a disease that a human product will also treat.
No; with food producing animals (regardless of if they are actually used for food), you MUST use a veterinary product on label in most situations
29
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What is a compounded product?
-based on individual need
-reformulated from either a commercial product or from an API
-they are NOT for resale, a duplication of a commercially available product, or a commercial product that has to reconstituted to use or an IV admixture
30
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What does a drug being schedule I mean?
chemical substances that have a high potential for abuse and have no legitimate medical use in treatment in the United States (heroin, LSD)
31
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What does a drug being schedule II mean?
drugs that have a current accepted medical use for treatment in the US but have a high potential for abuse; this abuse may lead to severe psychological or physical dependence (morphine, fentanyl)
32
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What does a drug being schedule III mean?
drugs that are accepted in medical use in the US and have less potential for abuse than the substances in schedules I or II (codeine combinations, telazol, ketamine, euthanasia solutions)
33
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What does a drug being schedule IV mean?
drugs with a low potential for abuse relative to substances in schedule III; they have a current accepted use and a limited physical or psychological dependence potential (benzodiazepines, phenobarbital)
34
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What does a drug being schedule V mean?
drugs with the lowest potential for abuse of those scheduled as controlled drugs (sudafed)
35
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How long are you required to keep DEA records?
2 years
36
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If a veterinarian is prescribing controlled drugs at a clinic and a shelter, do they have to have two separate DEA registrations?
yes
37
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Outdated, damaged, or contaminated CS must be disposed of, and we must follow federal regulations and filing what forms?
DEA 41
38
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Purchase from another veterinary practice or from a pharmacy requires what form?
DEA form 222
39
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To make corrections on DEA logs, what should be done?
-no liquid paper
-no strikeouts
-ink or typewriter used
-description must be exact
40
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What schedule drugs cannot be refilled?
Schedule II
41
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During repolarization, what ion moves out of the cells?
potassium
42
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What receptor types are linked to the sympathetic nervous system?
adrenergic receptors
43
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What do beta 1 receptors do?
they increase heart rate, strength of contraction, and the speed at which the depolarization wave travels through the heart (Beta 1's bring the beat)
44
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What do beta 2 receptors do?
located in smooth muscle surrounding the blood vessels of the heart and terminal bronchioles in the lungs (cause vasodilation and bronchodilation when stimulated)
45
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What receptors are associated with the parasympathetic nervous system?
cholinergic
46
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What drug is used for PVCs and ventricular arrhythmias?
lidocaine
47
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What are examples of positive ionotropic drugs?
digoxin, dobutamine, dopamine, and pimobendan
48
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What do ace inhibitors do?
Block conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II therefore decreasing preload and afterload
49
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What drug can cause facial dermatitis in cats?
sprionolactone
50
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What is a drug we use to decrease the risk of blood clots?
aspirin
51
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What is the purpose of guaifenesin?
expectorant-used to decrease the viscosity of respiratory secretions for easier removal
52
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What is the purpose of bronchodilators?
relax muscles around the airway and are thought to help with airway inflammation
53
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What drugs only work for allergies?
antihistamines
54
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Are decongestants commonly used in vet med?
no
55
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What do mucolytics do?
break up the mucous
56
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What is the drug of choice to induce vomiting in cats?
xylazine
57
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What is the trade name of Maropitant?
Cerenia
58
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What is the trade name of Ondasteron?
Zofran
59
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What is the trade name of Metocloparmide?
Reglan
60
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What is the trade name of diphenhydramine?
Benadryl
61
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What is the trade name of Famotidine?
Pepcid
62
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What antidiarrheal is contraindicated in herding breeds because these breeds are more sensitive to it?
loperamide
63
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What antidiarrheal is not for cats?
Bismuth Subsalicylate (main ingredient in Pepto Bismol)
64
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What drug treat hypothyroidism?
levothyroxine
65
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What treats hyperthyroidism?
I-131
66
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What treats cushing's disease?
mitotane/trilostane
67
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What treats addison's disease?
Fludrocortisone (Florinef), DOCP (percorten), and glucocorticoid supplement
68
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What treat diabetes mellitus?
Insulin is usually the best choice but Glipizide is an option
69
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What treats an insulinoma?
iv dextrose for seizures, diazoxide, glucocorticoids
70
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What type of blood tube shouldn't be used for therapeutic drug monitoring?
serum separator tubes because the gel separator absorbs some of the drug making the blood level inaccurate
71
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When is it okay to start giving prednisone or prednisolone when dealing with hypoadrenocorticism?
after an ACTH stim test is done to confirm the diagnosis (if given before your ACTH results may be inaccurate)
72
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What hypocalcemia drug doesn't require PTH and is the preferred method of vitamin D supplementation?
Dihydrotachysterol
73
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Which form of therapy is almost always preferred for diabetes patients?
insulin
74
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Should you shake or role a vial of insulin to mix it before giving?
roll- shaking creates air bubbles
75
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Does it matter if you use a U40 or U100 syringe when giving insulin?
YES- use what the package says; if you don't incorrect dosing will result
76
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What is the purpose of a mismate shot (Estradiol cypoinate injection)?
to prevent implantation in the case of accidental breeding
77
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What is the purpose of Ovaban (Megestrol acetate)?
prevent estrus or shorten estrus- don't use back to back because of pyometra risk
78
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What is the purpose of Regumate (Altrenogest)?
suppress estrus in mares; usually used for synchronization purposes
79
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What is the purpose of prostaglandin F2a?
lyse the corpus luteum forcing the animal to begin estrous cycle again
80
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What is the purpose of oxytocin?
-cause milk let down
-uterine contractions during birth and for the next 2 days
81
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What describes a bladder that has detrusor atony (unable to generate sufficient intravesicular pressure to initiate or complete voiding)?
hypocontractile bladder
82
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What describes a bladder that has urge incontinence (normal filling and storage or urine in the bladder is lost)?
hypercontractile bladder
83
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What is the most common cause of incontinence in adult female dogs?
urethral incompetence
84
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In what percentage of dogs is Phenylpropanoloamine (PPA) effective for usually?
85-90%
85
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What drug increases urethral closure pressure by increasing the density and responsiveness of a-adrenergic receptors in urethral smooth muscle?
Diethylstilbestrol (DES)
86
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What drug relaxes detrusor (decreasing contractions during urine storage) and is an antispasmodic?
Oxybutynin
87
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What drug causes urethral smooth muscle relaxation; used in small animals primarily for its effect in reducing internal urethral sphincter tone in dogs and cat when urethral sphincter hypertonus is present?
Phenoxybenzamine
88
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What drug is used primarily to increase bladder contractility; used to treat spinal cord bladder, and it's side effects are SLUD?
Bethanechol
89
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What do NSAIDs block?
cyclooxygenase
90
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What do steroids block?
phospholipase
91
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What is the most common side effect of NSAIDs?
GI ulceration
92
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In what cases would we glucocorticoids with caution?
-hyperadrenocorticism (prone to thromboembolism)
-animals that have had pancreatitis
-diabetes mellitus
-suspected fungal infection
93
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Should you give NSAIDs to a dehydrated patient?
no
94
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Prednisolone is classified as what type of steroid?
intermediate acting glucocorticoid
95
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What are common topical steroids?
hydrocortisone and cortisone
96
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What steroid is an abortifacient in cattle and can induce surfactant in fetus prior to delievery?
dexamethasone
97
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For cats, should we use prednisone or prednisolone?
prednisolone
98
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What is the drug name for Zyrtec?
cetirizine
99
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What anithistamine is really good for cats?
chlorpheneramine (Chlortrimeton)
100
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What does DMSO block?
free radical release